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A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8
- B. Client with a platelet count of 128000/mm³
- C. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds
- D. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should see the client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds first because PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. A PT of 28 seconds is prolonged, indicating potential bleeding risk. This requires immediate attention to prevent complications.
Choice A: A client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 may indicate anticoagulant therapy but is not as urgent as a prolonged PT.
Choice B: A platelet count of 128,000/mm³ is low but doesn't necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a prolonged PT.
Choice D: A red blood cell count of 5.1 million/L is within normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue related to clotting or bleeding.
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A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this condition?
- A. Chronic atrophic gastritis
- B. Ileal resection
- C. Tapeworm infestation
- D. Alcoholism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tapeworm infestation. The symptoms described are consistent with vitamin B12 deficiency, which can result in macrocytic anemia and neurological symptoms. Chronic atrophic gastritis and ileal resection can impair absorption of vitamin B12, leading to deficiency. Alcoholism can also lead to malnutrition and vitamin deficiencies. Tapeworm infestation, on the other hand, does not directly affect vitamin B12 absorption. Therefore, tapeworm infestation is not a factor causing the condition described.
A patient receiving blood begins complaining of severe chest pain and a feeling of warmth. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call the physician.
- B. Administer diuretics as ordered.
- C. Discontinue the blood transfusion.
- D. Assess vital signs and cardiovascular status.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first step is to discontinue the blood transfusion (Choice C) because the patient is experiencing symptoms of a transfusion reaction, such as chest pain and warmth. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further harm. Calling the physician (Choice A) can be done after discontinuing the transfusion. Administering diuretics (Choice B) is not appropriate for this situation. Assessing vital signs and cardiovascular status (Choice D) should be done after stopping the transfusion to monitor the patient's condition.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking folic acid to treat megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine therapeutic effectiveness?
- A. Amylase level
- B. Reticulocyte count
- C. C-reactive protein
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and monitoring their count can help determine the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia. Increased reticulocyte count indicates improved production of red blood cells. Amylase level, C-reactive protein, and creatinine clearance are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia.
A 15-year-old female presents with 1 month of fatigue and 3 days of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her physical exam is unremarkable. A chest x-ray shows a large mediastinal mass that is greater than 33% of the diameter of her chest cavity. A biopsy shows nodular sclerosing, classic Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL). Metastatic workup at diagnosis, including CT scan of neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis and PET scan, shows no other site of disease. According to the Ann Arbor staging system, the patient has which stage of cHL?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stage I. In the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma, Stage I indicates involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or a single extralymphatic site (IE) without systemic symptoms. In this case, the patient has a large mediastinal mass but no other sites of disease on metastatic workup. This corresponds to Stage I disease.
Choice B: Stage II would indicate involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm.
Choice C: Stage III would indicate involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
Choice D: Stage IV would indicate disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs or tissues.
Therefore, based on the information provided, the correct stage for this patient is Stage I as per the Ann Arbor staging system.
An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. A firm, painless cervical lymph node in an adult without recent infectious diseases raises concerns for potential underlying serious conditions such as malignancy. Referring the patient for medical assessment allows for further evaluation, including physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies if necessary, to determine the cause of the lymphadenopathy. This prompt referral is crucial for timely diagnosis and appropriate management.
Summary:
A: Calling 911 is not warranted as the patient is stable and does not have an emergency medical condition.
C: Facilitating a radiograph may not provide sufficient information for evaluating the lymph node and delays definitive assessment.
D: Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node size can lead to delayed diagnosis and potentially worsening of the underlying condition.