A nurse is caring for patients with dysphagia. Which patient has neurogenic dysphagia?
- A. A patient with benign peptic stricture
- B. A patient with muscular dystrophy
- C. A patient with myasthenia gravis
- D. A patient with stroke
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because neurogenic dysphagia is caused by neurological conditions affecting swallowing function, such as a stroke. In a stroke, damage to the brain can impair the coordination of swallowing muscles, leading to dysphagia.
Choice A is incorrect because benign peptic stricture is a narrowing of the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, not a neurological issue.
Choice B is incorrect because muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects muscle strength and does not directly impact the neurological control of swallowing.
Choice C is incorrect because myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission but is not typically associated with neurogenic dysphagia.
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The nurse has taken shift report on her patients and has been told that one patient has an ocular condition that has primarily affected the rods in his eyes. Considering this information, what should the nurse do while caring for the patient?
- A. Ensure adequate lighting in the patients room.
- B. Provide a dimly lit room to aid vision by limiting contrast.
- C. Carefully point out color differences for the patient.
- D. Carefully point out fine details for the patient.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A because rods are responsible for vision in low light conditions. By ensuring adequate lighting in the patient's room, the nurse can optimize the patient's visual acuity. This will help the patient navigate their environment more safely.
Summary:
- B is incorrect because dim lighting would further limit the patient's already compromised vision.
- C is incorrect as the patient's ability to perceive color may not be affected by rod dysfunction.
- D is incorrect as the patient may struggle to see fine details due to rod impairment.
A student nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a wide excision of the vulva. The student should know that what action is contraindicated in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Placing patient in low Fowlers position
- B. Application of compression stockings
- C. Ambulation to a chair
- D. Provision of a low-residue diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Application of compression stockings. Immediately after a wide excision of the vulva, compression stockings should be avoided as they can increase the risk of blood clots. Placing the patient in a low Fowler's position helps with comfort and promotes healing. Ambulation to a chair aids in preventing complications like pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. Providing a low-residue diet is appropriate postoperatively to prevent straining during bowel movements.
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
- A. Vertebral fracture
- B. Hematoma at the surgical site
- C. Scoliosis
- D. Renal trauma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling.
A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures.
C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy.
D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition?
- A. Chronic confusion
- B. Impaired urinary elimination
- C. Impaired verbal communication
- D. Bowel incontinence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired verbal communication. In ALS, motor neurons deteriorate leading to muscle weakness and atrophy, including those involved in speech production. This results in impaired verbal communication. Chronic confusion (A) is not a common manifestation of ALS. Impaired urinary elimination (B) and bowel incontinence (D) are not typically associated with ALS, as it primarily affects motor neurons, not autonomic functions.
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