A nurse is caring for two clients who report following the same religion. Which of the following information should the nurse consider when planning care for these clients?
- A. Members of the same religion may have varying feelings about their religion.
- B. A shared religion background does not guarantee identical beliefs.
- C. The same religious beliefs can influence individuals differently.
- D. Discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be relevant.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Religious beliefs can vary widely even among individuals of the same faith. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that the impact and interpretation of religious beliefs can differ from person to person. Choice A is incorrect as individuals within the same religion can have diverse feelings and interpretations. Choice B is incorrect because a shared religious background does not necessarily mean that individuals hold the same beliefs. Choice D is not the best course of action as discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be necessary or appropriate for providing care.
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A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypocalcemia. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for the development of this electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Crohn's disease
- B. Postoperative status following appendectomy
- C. History of bone cancer
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crohn's disease is known to impair calcium absorption, which can lead to hypocalcemia. This condition affects the intestines and can disrupt the normal absorption of nutrients, including calcium. Postoperative status following appendectomy, history of bone cancer, and hyperthyroidism are typically not directly associated with a higher risk of developing hypocalcemia compared to Crohn's disease.
When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?
- A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
- B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
- C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
- D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.
A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
- A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
- B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
- C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
- D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
- B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
- C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
- D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.
A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?
- A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
- B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
- C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
- D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.
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