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A nurse is collecting data from a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pyelonephritis?
- A. Epigastric discomfort
- B. Flank pain
- C. Temperature 37.7°C (99.8°F)
- D. Abdominal cramping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flank pain. Pyelonephritis is an infection of the kidneys, commonly seen in pregnant women due to physiological changes. Flank pain is a classic symptom due to inflammation of the kidney tissue. Epigastric discomfort (A) is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues, not typically associated with pyelonephritis. Temperature elevation (C) is a common sign of infection but not specific to pyelonephritis. Abdominal cramping (D) is more commonly associated with uterine contractions in pregnancy.
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A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Massage the client's fundus.
- B. Administer oxytocin to the client.
- C. Empty the client’s bladder.
- D. Provide oxygen to the client via nonrebreather face mask.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to massage the client's fundus. This is because excessive vaginal bleeding postpartum can indicate uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By massaging the fundus, the nurse can help the uterus contract and prevent further bleeding. This intervention is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering oxytocin (choice B) can help with uterine contractions, but massaging the fundus should be done first. Emptying the client's bladder (choice C) is important to prevent uterine atony, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Providing oxygen (choice D) is not directly related to managing postpartum bleeding and should not be the first action.
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, which increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to the rapid dilation of the cervix. As the cervix dilates, the blood vessels in the area are more prone to bleeding post-delivery. Ectopic pregnancy (A) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, which is not relevant in this scenario. Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, unrelated to the client's current condition. Incompetent cervix (C) is a condition where the cervix opens prematurely, typically in the second trimester, not during active labor.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion and is experiencing persistent late decelerations in the FHR. After discontinuing the infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to bear down and push with contractions.
- B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather facemask.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather facemask. This action is appropriate because late decelerations in fetal heart rate (FHR) can indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to fetal hypoxia. Administering oxygen helps increase the oxygen supply to the fetus, potentially improving fetal oxygenation and reducing the risk of hypoxia-related complications.
Choice A is incorrect because bearing down and pushing with contractions can further compromise fetal oxygenation in the presence of late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect as a supine position can worsen uteroplacental perfusion. Choice D, initiating an amnioinfusion, is not indicated for addressing late decelerations in FHR.
Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as being consistent with the adolescent's assessment findings? For each finding click to specify if the assessment findings are consistent with trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, or candidiasis. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Abdominal pain.
- B. Greenish discharge.
- C. Diabetes.
- D. Pain on urination.
- E. Absence of condom.
Correct Answer: B, D
Rationale: The correct answer is B, D . Abdominal pain (A) is not specific to any of the given conditions. Diabetes (C) is not directly related to the assessment findings provided. Absence of condom (E) is not an assessment finding, but a behavior. Trichomoniasis is characterized by greenish discharge, and pain on urination can be a symptom of both gonorrhea and trichomoniasis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer betamethasone IM.
- B. Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations.
- C. Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol.
- D. Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol. Misoprostol is a medication commonly used to manage postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. It helps to promote uterine contractions and control bleeding. Administering betamethasone (A) is not indicated in this situation as it is a steroid used for fetal lung maturation. Avoiding sterile vaginal examinations (B) may delay the identification of the cause of bleeding. Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test (D) is used to determine the amount of fetal-maternal hemorrhage and is not the immediate priority in managing uterine atony.