Nokea
A nurse is collecting data from a client who states she recently started taking garlic as an herbal supplement. The nurse should advise the client to stop taking garlic due to a potential reaction with which of the following client medications?
- A. Dicloxacillin
- B. Warfarin
- C. Esomeprazole
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Warfarin. Garlic can interact with warfarin, an anticoagulant, potentially increasing the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Garlic can enhance the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications. Dicloxacillin (A) is an antibiotic, Esomeprazole (C) is a proton pump inhibitor, and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) is a diuretic, none of which have significant interactions with garlic.
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Nurses’ notes
Vital Signs
Medication Administration Record
Client reports tightness in the chest that radiates to the left arm. States pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client is diaphoretic and short of breath.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when reinforcing teaching to the client about their medication? Select all that apply.
- A. Lie down with feet elevated if dizziness occurs while taking this medication.
- B. Apply the patch daily to a hairless area of the skin.
- C. The medication will be effective 30 to 45 min following application.
- D. Remove the patch 12 to 14 hr following application.
- E. Remove the patch if you experience a headache.
- F. Place the patch on the same area every day.
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: Correct answer: A, B, D
Rationale:
A: Instructing the client to lie down with feet elevated if dizziness occurs is important as it can prevent falls and injury.
B: Applying the patch to a hairless area of the skin ensures proper drug absorption and effectiveness.
D: Removing the patch after 12 to 14 hours prevents skin irritation and ensures the medication is not being overexposed.
Incorrect answer explanations:
C: The time frame given for medication effectiveness is inaccurate and may lead to confusion.
E: Removing the patch if experiencing a headache is not a standard instruction and may interfere with the medication's intended purpose.
F: Placing the patch on the same area daily can lead to skin irritation or decreased drug absorption due to buildup.
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client admitted for an acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate implementing?
- A. Administer naloxone.
- B. Monitor amylase and lipase.
- C. Obtain a chest x-ray.
- D. Give acetylcysteine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Give acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose as it helps replenish glutathione stores and prevent liver damage. Naloxone (A) is used for opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Monitoring amylase and lipase (B) is for pancreatitis, not acetaminophen overdose. Obtaining a chest x-ray (C) is not necessary for acetaminophen overdose. Giving acetylcysteine (D) is the priority intervention for acetaminophen overdose to prevent liver toxicity.
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has a new prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Calculate the correct amount of the medication.
- B. Validate the prescription with the available medication.
- C. Document the time of the medication administration.
- D. Identify the client using two means of identification
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client using two means of identification. This is crucial to ensure the right medication is given to the right patient, preventing errors and ensuring patient safety. By verifying the client's identity, the nurse can confirm they are administering the medication to the correct individual. This step helps prevent medication errors and ensures accountability.
Calculating the correct amount of medication (A) is important but should come after verifying the patient's identity. Validating the prescription with available medication (B) is also important but not the first step. Documenting the time of medication administration (C) is essential but should follow patient identification.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment for chronic alcohol use disorder. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to assist the client in maintaining abstinence by aversion therapy?
- A. Carbamazepine
- B. Disulfiram
- C. Atenolol
- D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disulfiram. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy for alcohol use disorder by causing unpleasant effects like nausea, vomiting, and flushing when alcohol is consumed. This helps deter the client from drinking. Carbamazepine (A) is used for seizures, mood disorders, and neuropathic pain, not specifically for aversion therapy. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and not for aversion therapy. Lorazepam (D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for aversion therapy.
A nurse is preparing to administer 17,000 units heparin subcutaneously. Available is heparin 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest hundredth. Use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 0.85
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL of heparin needed, use the formula: Amount needed (17,000 units) ÷ Concentration of heparin (20,000 units/mL) = mL to administer. 17,000 ÷ 20,000 = 0.85 mL (Round to the nearest hundredth). Therefore, the correct answer is A (0.85 mL). Other choices are incorrect as they do not result from the correct calculation.