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A nurse is collecting data from an older adult client. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client has a bladder infection?
- A. WBC count 9,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)
- B. Temperature 37.3° C (99.1° F)
- C. Changed mental status
- D. Diminished reflexes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older adults with bladder infections (UTIs) often lack classic symptoms, presenting with altered mental status confusion or lethargy from systemic inflammation or bacteremia, per geriatric care standards. Normal WBC (9,000/mm³) doesn't rule out UTI; leukocytosis isn't always present early. A slight fever (37.3°C) supports infection but isn't definitive alone. Diminished reflexes tie to aging or neurology, not UTI. Mental status change is a red flag prompting urinalysis and antibiotics preventing sepsis, making it the strongest indicator in this population.
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A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 6 mcg/kg subcutaneously to a client who weighs 110 lb. Available is filgrastim solution for injection 480 mcg/0.8 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 0.3 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.5 mL
- D. 0.6 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms (110 lb ÷ 2.2 = 50 kg). Filgrastim is dosed at 6 mcg/kg, so 6 mcg/kg × 50 kg = 300 mcg needed. The available concentration is 480 mcg in 0.8 mL. Set up the proportion: (300 mcg ÷ 480 mcg) × 0.8 mL = 0.5 mL. Option A (0.3 mL) underdoses at 180 mcg, Option B (0.4 mL) gives 240 mcg, and Option D (0.6 mL) overdoses at 360 mcg. Option C (0.5 mL) delivers exactly 300 mcg, matching the prescribed dose. Rounding to the nearest tenth, 0.5 mL is correct with no trailing zero, adhering to medication safety standards. This calculation ensures therapeutic efficacy (e.g., boosting white blood cells) while minimizing risks like overdose-related bone pain or underdose-related infection susceptibility, making C the precise and safe choice.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is perimenopausal. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Difficulty sleeping
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Vaginal dryness
- D. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Perimenopause brings hormonal shifts, but urinary frequency stands out it may signal a UTI, bladder issue, or pelvic pathology, requiring urgent evaluation over typical symptoms. Difficulty sleeping and hot flashes stem from estrogen fluctuations, common and manageable with lifestyle changes. Vaginal dryness, also hormonal, responds to lubricants or estrogen therapy, not immediate concern. Frequency, however, risks infection or renal complications older women often present atypically (e.g., confusion), per geriatric guidelines. Using ABCs, elimination issues outrank comfort, driving prompt reporting for diagnostics (e.g., urinalysis), preventing progression, making it the priority finding.
A nurse is reviewing the results of a client's fecal occult blood screening test. Which of the following findings from the client's history should the nurse identify as potentially causing a false-positive result?
- A. The client had a hemorrhoidectomy 1 year ago.
- B. The client takes ibuprofen for headaches.
- C. The client has a history of breast cancer.
- D. The client consumed citrus juice 3 days before the test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause GI irritation and bleeding, leading to a false-positive fecal occult blood test. The other factors are unlikely to affect the result directly.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a postoperative client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse recognize as an indication of a septic reaction to the blood transfusion?
- A. Distended neck veins
- B. Polyuria
- C. Vomiting
- D. Hypertension
- E. Fever and chills
- F. Tachycardia
- G. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting is a sign of a septic reaction due to contaminated blood; distended veins suggest fluid overload, polyuria isn't typical, and hypertension isn't specific.
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new permanent pacemaker. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I'll make sure I stay away from microwave ovens.
- B. I should have an MRI, rather than a CAT scan, if necessary.
- C. I'll hold my cell phone against the ear on the opposite side of my body.
- D. I shouldn't travel by plane because of airport security.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Holding a cell phone on the opposite side minimizes electromagnetic interference with the pacemaker. Microwaves and airport security are generally safe, and MRIs are contraindicated due to the magnetic field.