Nokea
A nurse is counseling a young adult who describes having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as the priority to assess further?
- A. "I have my own apartment now, but it's not easy living away from my guardians."
- B. "It's been so stressful for me to even think about having my own family."
- C. "I don't even know who I am yet, and now I'm supposed to know what to do."
- D. "My partner is pregnant, and I don't think I have what it takes to be a good parent."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement about feeling unprepared to be a good parent indicates a significant concern that may need further assessment and support. This statement raises issues regarding the individual's readiness for parenthood and potential impact on the partner and the unborn child. Choices A, B, and C, while important, do not present immediate concerns regarding the well-being of another individual and do not raise potential risks that could have a direct impact on others.
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An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Incontinence
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Rapid pulse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.
A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:
- A. Purulent
- B. Serous
- C. Sanguineous
- D. Serosanguineous
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.
A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein.
- B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
- C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice to promote absorption.
- D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
A nurse offers pain medication to a client who is postoperative before ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Beneficence
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Beneficence. Beneficence involves actions intended to benefit the client, such as providing pain relief. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating beneficence by offering pain medication to alleviate the client's discomfort and promote their well-being. Fidelity (A) relates to being faithful to agreements and commitments, autonomy (B) refers to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, and justice (C) involves fairness and equal treatment. While these ethical principles are important in healthcare, the situation described primarily exemplifies the principle of beneficence.