Nokea
A nurse is educating a birthing person about the benefits of skin-to-skin contact with their newborn immediately after birth. The nurse explains that this practice has numerous advantages. Which of the following benefits is NOT typically associated with skin-to-skin contact?
- A. improved bonding between parent and baby
- B. enhanced thermoregulation for the newborn
- C. decreased risk of neonatal infections
- D. accelerated uterine involution for the birthing person
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: accelerated uterine involution for the birthing person. Skin-to-skin contact does not directly impact the process of uterine involution. The benefits of skin-to-skin contact include improved bonding (A), enhanced thermoregulation (B), and decreased risk of neonatal infections (C). These benefits are well-documented and supported by research. In contrast, uterine involution is a physiological process that occurs naturally postpartum and is not influenced by skin-to-skin contact. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer in this scenario.
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A pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation is asking about safe activities during pregnancy. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
- A. You should avoid all physical activity to protect your baby.
- B. Moderate exercise, such as walking and swimming, is safe during pregnancy.
- C. You can engage in vigorous exercise, as long as you don't feel any discomfort.
- D. Only yoga and stretching exercises are safe during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because moderate exercise like walking and swimming is generally safe during pregnancy and can provide health benefits for both the mother and the baby. Walking and swimming are low-impact activities that can help improve cardiovascular health, reduce stress, and enhance overall well-being without posing significant risks.
Option A is incorrect as physical activity is important during pregnancy, and avoiding all activity can be detrimental to both the mother and the baby. Option C is incorrect as engaging in vigorous exercise may increase the risk of injury or complications during pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as a variety of moderate exercises beyond just yoga and stretching can be safe and beneficial during pregnancy.
The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. After complaining of genital sores and discomfort, the patient tests positive for syphilis. The fetus is at increased risk of which condition?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Blindness
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blindness. Syphilis infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital syphilis, which can cause a range of complications for the fetus, including blindness. The spirochete that causes syphilis can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, leading to various abnormalities. Blindness is a common manifestation of congenital syphilis due to damage to the eyes and optic nerve. The other options are not directly associated with syphilis infection during pregnancy. Diabetes, pneumonia, and hypertension are not typically linked to congenital syphilis and its effects on the fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Blindness.
A patient in labor is receiving Pitocin to augment contractions. The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Stop the Pitocin infusion
- B. Administer oxygen to the mother
- C. Change the patient's position
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it addresses the potential causes of late decelerations comprehensively. Stopping Pitocin helps to eliminate uteroplacental insufficiency, administering oxygen improves fetal oxygenation, and changing the patient's position can alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Each intervention targets a different aspect contributing to late decelerations, making it crucial to implement all of them to optimize fetal well-being.
A pregnant patient at 36 weeks gestation is experiencing swelling in her hands and feet. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for signs of preeclampsia.
- B. Instruct the patient to rest and elevate her legs regularly.
- C. Advise the patient to drink more water and reduce sodium intake.
- D. Encourage the patient to take a warm bath to reduce swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 36 weeks gestation, swelling in the hands and feet could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition. The nurse's priority is to monitor the patient's blood pressure and assess for other signs of preeclampsia, such as headache, visual disturbances, and proteinuria. Prompt detection and management of preeclampsia are crucial to prevent complications like eclampsia and HELLP syndrome. Choices B, C, and D do not address the potential seriousness of the situation and may delay the necessary assessment and intervention for preeclampsia.
During open glottis pushing, what is the laboring person instructed to do?
- A. hold their breath and push for 10 seconds during each contraction
- B. push spontaneously while exhaling during contractions
- C. exhale slowly during contractions without pushing
- D. perform deep breathing exercises between contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During open glottis pushing, the correct instruction is for the laboring person to push spontaneously while exhaling during contractions (Choice B). This technique helps prevent breath-holding, which can increase intra-abdominal pressure and reduce blood flow to the heart and baby. Exhaling while pushing allows for better oxygenation and reduces the risk of Valsalva maneuver-related complications. Holding their breath (Choice A) can increase the risk of fetal distress. Exhaling slowly without pushing (Choice C) is not effective in assisting with the pushing stage of labor. Deep breathing exercises between contractions (Choice D) are beneficial for relaxation but not the main focus during pushing.