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A nurse is evaluating teaching on a client who has a new prescription for montelukast to treat asthma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I'll take this medication once a day in the evening.
- B. I'll take this medication only when I have an asthma attack.
- C. I'll take this medication in the morning before exercise.
- D. I'll stop the medication if I feel better.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. "I'll take this medication once a day in the evening."
Rationale:
1. Montelukast is usually taken once daily in the evening to provide optimal control of asthma symptoms.
2. Taking it consistently at the same time every day helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the body.
3. This statement shows the client understands the prescribed dosing schedule and is likely to adhere to it.
Summary of other choices:
B. Incorrect: Waiting to take the medication only during an asthma attack is not the correct way to manage asthma as montelukast is meant for daily maintenance.
C. Incorrect: Taking the medication before exercise is not the recommended timing for montelukast administration.
D. Incorrect: Stopping the medication when feeling better can lead to a worsening of asthma symptoms as montelukast helps prevent asthma attacks.
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A nurse is explaining DIC to a client with septic shock. What should the nurse say?
- A. DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen.
- B. DIC is due to a vitamin K deficiency.
- C. DIC is caused by bone marrow suppression.
- D. DIC results from an underactive clotting system.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is characterized by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen. In DIC, there is widespread activation of the clotting cascade leading to the formation of microthrombi. This process consumes clotting factors like fibrinogen, leading to bleeding tendencies. Vitamin K deficiency (B) primarily affects the production of clotting factors, but it is not the direct cause of DIC. Bone marrow suppression (C) and an underactive clotting system (D) are not accurate explanations for DIC.
A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who has AIDS with recurring pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a sputum culture
- B. Administer a chest X-ray
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Provide oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain a sputum culture. This is essential to identify the specific pathogen causing the pneumonia in the client with AIDS. By identifying the pathogen, appropriate antibiotic therapy can be initiated promptly. Administering a chest X-ray (B) may help in evaluating the extent of pneumonia but does not address the underlying cause. Monitoring for fever (C) is important but does not provide specific information needed for targeted treatment. Providing oxygen therapy (D) may be necessary but does not address the root cause of the pneumonia.
A nurse is teaching a class about preventive care to clients who are at risk for acquiring viral hepatitis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the presentation?
- A. Avoid foods prepared with tap water.
- B. Vaccination against hepatitis B and C is recommended.
- C. Wash hands thoroughly after using the restroom.
- D. Food should be prepared with purified water.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Food should be prepared with purified water. Hepatitis A virus can be spread through contaminated water or food. Using purified water for food preparation can help prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding foods prepared with tap water alone may not be sufficient to prevent hepatitis. Choice B is incorrect as there is no vaccination available for hepatitis C. Choice C is important for general hygiene but may not specifically prevent hepatitis transmission.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a cardiopulmonary arrest. The nurse anticipates the emergency response team will administer which of the following medications if the client's restored rhythm is symptomatic bradycardia?
- A. Atropine
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Magnesium
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Atropine is the correct answer because it is the first-line medication for symptomatic bradycardia. It works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate. Epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest, not bradycardia. Magnesium is for torsades de pointes, not bradycardia. Sodium bicarbonate is for metabolic acidosis, not bradycardia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. This can lead to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in a client with heart failure as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels regularly to prevent this adverse effect.
Summary of other choices:
B: Hyperkalemia - Furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C: Hypernatremia - Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to sodium loss, not hypernatremia.
D: Hypertension - Furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension, so it is not an adverse effect of the medication in this scenario.