Nokea
A nurse is instructing a client how to decrease the nausea associated with chemotherapy and radiation. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat food that are served at room temperature.
- B. I will eat food that is very hot.
- C. I will drink large amounts of fluids with meals.
- D. I will eat a large meal right before chemotherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: "I will eat food that is served at room temperature."
Rationale: Eating foods at room temperature can help decrease nausea because hot foods may worsen nausea, while cold foods could cause stomach discomfort. Room temperature foods are generally easier on the stomach and may be better tolerated during chemotherapy and radiation. This choice demonstrates an understanding of how food temperature can impact nausea.
Summary of other choices:
B: Eating very hot food can actually worsen nausea.
C: Drinking large amounts of fluids with meals can dilute stomach acid and enzymes, potentially worsening nausea.
D: Eating a large meal right before chemotherapy can lead to increased nausea and discomfort.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?
- A. A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment
- B. A room with a ventilated ceiling fan
- C. A room with a window and curtains that close
- D. A shared room with other tuberculosis clients
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment. This is the appropriate room assignment for a client with active tuberculosis because it helps prevent the spread of airborne infectious particles. The air exhaust system ensures that contaminated air is not recirculated within the unit, reducing the risk of transmission to other patients and staff.
Choice B (A room with a ventilated ceiling fan) is incorrect because a ceiling fan does not provide sufficient ventilation to prevent the spread of tuberculosis.
Choice C (A room with a window and curtains that close) is also incorrect as it does not address the need for proper ventilation and containment of infectious particles.
Choice D (A shared room with other tuberculosis clients) is clearly incorrect as it would increase the risk of transmission among the clients.
In summary, the correct room assignment for a client with active tuberculosis should prioritize containment and ventilation to minimize the risk of spreading the infection to others.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
- B. Estrogen therapy will reverse vaginal dryness.
- C. Do not use tampons for 6 months.
- D. Avoid sexual activity for 1 year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
Rationale: After a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, the client will experience menopausal symptoms due to the removal of the ovaries. Vaginal dryness and itching are common symptoms that can be managed with artificial lubrication. Estrogen therapy is contraindicated in this client due to the history of uterine cancer. Using tampons can increase the risk of infection post-surgery. Avoiding sexual activity for 1 year is not necessary unless advised by the healthcare provider.
A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
A nurse teaches a client about cervical polyps. What is an expected symptom?
- A. Pelvic pain
- B. Heavy menstrual bleeding
- C. Postcoital bleeding
- D. Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Postcoital bleeding. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause postcoital bleeding due to contact with the polyp during intercourse. Pelvic pain, heavy menstrual bleeding, and urinary incontinence are not typical symptoms of cervical polyps. Pelvic pain may occur in other conditions like endometriosis. Heavy menstrual bleeding can be a symptom of fibroids or hormonal imbalances. Urinary incontinence is more commonly associated with pelvic floor disorders or urinary tract infections. Postcoital bleeding specifically points to cervical polyps as the likely cause.
A nurse evaluates a client's PSA lab results. An increase in PSA indicates what condition?
- A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Urinary tract infection
- D. Kidney stones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostatic cancer. PSA levels are commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels indicate an increased likelihood of prostate cancer. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (choice A) is a non-cancerous condition that can also cause elevated PSA levels but is not indicative of cancer. Urinary tract infection (choice C) and kidney stones (choice D) do not directly affect PSA levels. The other choices (E, F, G) are not provided, but the key is to understand that an increase in PSA specifically points towards the possibility of prostatic cancer.