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A nurse is instructing an AP in caring for a client who has a low platelet count as a result of chemotherapy. Which of the following is the nurse's priority instruction for measuring vital signs for this client?
- A. Don't measure the client's temperature rectally.'
- B. Count the client's radial pulse for 30 seconds & multiply by 2.'
- C. Don't let the client know you are counting her respirations.'
- D. Let the client rest for 5 minutes before you measure her BP.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Don't measure the client's temperature rectally.
Rationale: Clients with low platelet count are at risk for bleeding. Rectal temperature measurement poses a risk of mucosal injury and bleeding due to the fragility of the rectal mucosa. Therefore, the nurse's priority instruction is to avoid rectal temperature measurement to prevent any potential harm to the client.
Summary:
B: Counting the radial pulse for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is a valid method for measuring heart rate but is not the priority instruction in this case.
C: It is important for the client to be aware that respirations are being counted to ensure accurate measurement. However, this is not the priority instruction for vital sign measurement.
D: Allowing the client to rest for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure is a good practice, but it is not the priority instruction compared to avoiding rectal temperature measurement for a client with low platelet count.
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A nurse is assessing a client who takes haloperidol (Haldol) for the treatment of schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)? Select all.
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Fine motor tremors
- C. Acute dystonias
- D. Decreased level of consciousness
- E. Uncontrollable restlessness
Correct Answer: B, C, E
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C, and E. Fine motor tremors, acute dystonias, and uncontrollable restlessness are all extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) commonly associated with haloperidol use. Fine motor tremors refer to involuntary shaking movements, acute dystonias are sudden muscle contractions causing abnormal postures, and uncontrollable restlessness is known as akathisia. These are classic EPS manifestations caused by dopamine blockade in the basal ganglia. Orthostatic hypotension (A) is a side effect related to alpha-adrenergic blockade, not EPS. Decreased level of consciousness (D) is not typically associated with EPS but may indicate overdose or other complications.
A nurse educator is presenting a module on basic first aid for newly licensed home health nurses. The nurse educator evaluates the teaching as effective when the newly licensed nurse states the client who has heat stroke will have which of the following?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Clammy skin
- D. Bradypnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by the body's inability to regulate its temperature due to prolonged exposure to high temperatures. This leads to excessive sweating and dehydration, resulting in a drop in blood pressure (hypotension). Bradycardia (B) is a slow heart rate, which is not typically seen in heat stroke. Clammy skin (C) is common in heat exhaustion, not heat stroke. Bradypnea (D) is slow breathing, which is not a common sign of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most appropriate choice as it aligns with the pathophysiology of heat stroke.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings. What is the highest priority intervention when the nurse suspects aspiration?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Stop the feeding.
- C. Obtain a chest x-ray.
- D. Initiate oxygen therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the feeding. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Stopping the feeding immediately is crucial to prevent further aspiration and minimize harm to the client. Auscultating breath sounds (choice A) is important but should be done after stopping the feeding. Obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may be necessary later for further evaluation but is not the highest priority in this situation. Initiating oxygen therapy (choice D) may be needed depending on the client's condition, but it is not the highest priority when aspiration is suspected.
A nurse is receiving a provider's prescription by telephone for morphine for a client who is reporting moderate to severe pain. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? Select all.
- A. Repeat the details of the prescription back to the provider
- B. Have another nurse listen to the telephone prescription
- C. Obtain the prescriber's signature on the prescription within 24hrs
- D. Decline the verbal prescription because it is not an emergency situation
- E. Tell the charge nurse that the provider has prescribed morphine by telephone
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The correct choices are A, B, and C. A nurse should repeat the prescription back to the provider to ensure accurate communication and prevent errors. Having another nurse listen to the prescription can provide an additional check for accuracy and clarity. Obtaining the prescriber's signature on the prescription within 24 hours is necessary for documentation and legal purposes. Choice D should be ruled out as it is not appropriate to decline a valid prescription for pain medication in a timely manner. Choice E does not address the immediate need to confirm and document the prescription accurately.
A client is about to undergo an elective surgical procedure. Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse who is providing preop care regarding informed consent? Select all.
- A. Make sure the surgeon obtained the client's consent
- B. Witness the client's signature on the consent form
- C. Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure
- D. Describe the consequences of choosing not to have the surgery
- E. Tell the client about alternatives to having the surgery
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale:
A: The nurse should ensure the surgeon obtained the client's consent as the surgeon is responsible for informing the client about the procedure and obtaining consent.
B: Witnessing the client's signature on the consent form ensures that the client signed voluntarily and with full understanding.
Summary:
C: While explaining risks and benefits is important, it is primarily the surgeon's responsibility.
D: Describing consequences of not having surgery is relevant but not directly related to obtaining informed consent.
E: Although discussing alternatives is crucial, it is not a direct part of the informed consent process.