Nokea
A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial
- B. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial
- C. Inject air into the NPH vial
- D. Inject air into the regular insulin vial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inject air into the NPH vial. This step is crucial to prevent creating a vacuum in the vial when withdrawing the NPH insulin, ensuring accurate dosage measurement. Injecting air into the NPH vial equalizes pressure, making it easier to withdraw the correct amount of insulin without causing air bubbles.
Choice A is incorrect as withdrawing regular insulin first may lead to air being drawn into the syringe when withdrawing NPH insulin. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing NPH insulin first without equalizing pressure may cause difficulty in drawing the correct amount of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air into the regular insulin vial before withdrawing NPH insulin is unnecessary and may introduce air bubbles into the syringe.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about the new medication?
- A. You should take this medication with dairy products.
- B. This medication may cause constipation.
- C. It is common to experience headache or blurred vision while taking this medication.
- D. You should avoid the sun while taking this medication.
- E. You should use an alternate method of birth control while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: You should avoid the sun while taking this medication. This is important because some medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight, leading to sunburn or skin reactions. Avoiding the sun can prevent these adverse effects.
A: You should not take this medication with dairy products as it may interfere with the absorption of the medication.
B: Constipation is a common side effect of some medications, but it is not specific to this particular medication.
C: Headache or blurred vision may occur with some medications, but it is not specific to this particular medication.
E: Using an alternate method of birth control may be necessary if the medication interferes with hormonal contraceptives, but this information is not provided in the question stem.
A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Red man syndrome
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Phenytoin can cause hypotension as an adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. The drug can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to symptoms such as dizziness and lightheadedness. This adverse effect is important for the nurse to recognize as it can potentially lead to complications such as falls in the client.
A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
B: Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of phenytoin.
C: Red man syndrome is associated with vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Summary: Phenytoin is more likely to cause hypotension as an adverse effect, rather than hypoglycemia, bradycardia, or red man syndrome.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication?
- A. The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal.
- B. You can experience vivid nightmares.
- C. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color.
- D. Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.
- E. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking the medication with a meal can help reduce nausea. This statement is important to ensure client compliance and improve medication tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as vivid nightmares are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as urine color change is not relevant to this medication. Choice D is incorrect as high protein meals do not affect medication effectiveness. Choice E is incorrect as an increase in involuntary movements is not expected with this medication.
A nurse is caring for a client in a provider's office. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
- A. The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal
- B. You can experience vivid nightmares."
- C. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color
- D. Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication
- E. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements
- F. This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position
Correct Answer: A, B, E, F
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, B, E, F
Rationale:
A: Taking the medication with a meal can help reduce nausea, enhancing tolerance.
B: Mentioning vivid nightmares prepares the client for a potential side effect.
E: Increase in involuntary movements is a common side effect of certain medications.
F: Informing about potential dizziness upon standing up quickly promotes safety.
These statements address medication effects and side effects, promoting client understanding and safety.
Incorrect Choices:
C: Urine color change may not be relevant to the medication being discussed.
D: High protein meal interaction is not mentioned for this medication.
Incorrect choices lack relevance or do not address potential medication effects, making them not suitable for client education.
A nurse Is evaluating the laboratory results of four clents. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds indicates that the client's blood is taking too long to clot, which puts the client at risk for bleeding. The aPTT range for a client on heparin therapy is 30-40 seconds, so a result of 90 seconds is significantly elevated and requires immediate attention to prevent bleeding complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range of 30-40 seconds, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
C: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
D: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 is also