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A nurse is monitoring a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of Cushings triad?
- A. Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg
- B. Decrease in heart rate to 120 bpm
- C. Rapid shallow respirations
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg. Cushing's triad is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), seen in traumatic brain injury. It consists of hypertension (elevated blood pressure), bradycardia (not tachycardia), and irregular respirations (not rapid shallow respirations). The increase in blood pressure is due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion in response to the increased ICP. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the classic presentation of Cushing's triad in traumatic brain injury.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is hemorrhaging and hypotensive from esophageal variceal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer a vasopressor.
- B. Verify that the client has adequate IV access.
- C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- D. Prepare for endoscopic intervention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify that the client has adequate IV access. This is the priority action because the client is hypotensive from hemorrhaging, indicating a need for immediate fluid resuscitation to stabilize their condition. Without adequate IV access, the nurse cannot administer life-saving fluids and medications. Administering a vasopressor (A) or preparing for endoscopic intervention (D) may be necessary later but addressing the hypotension is the priority. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (C) is not recommended as it can increase intracranial pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of this syndrome?
- A. Bronchoconstriction
- B. Refractory hypoxemia
- C. Pulmonary hypertension
- D. Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Refractory hypoxemia.
Rationale: ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia that persists despite high levels of oxygen therapy, known as refractory hypoxemia. This occurs due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch and impaired gas exchange in the alveoli. The other choices are not typical manifestations of ARDS:
A: Bronchoconstriction is more commonly seen in asthma or COPD.
C: Pulmonary hypertension may develop as a complication of ARDS but is not a direct manifestation.
D: Pleural effusion may occur in ARDS but is not a defining characteristic.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a central venous catheter (CVC) with intravenous (IV) fluids infusing. The client suddenly develops shortness of breath, and the nurse notes that the IV tubing and needleless connector device are disconnected. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Close the pinch clamp on the CVC.
- B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- D. Obtain emergency IV access.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Close the pinch clamp on the CVC. This action is crucial to prevent air embolism, a potentially life-threatening complication of central venous catheter disconnection. Closing the pinch clamp will stop air from entering the bloodstream and minimize the risk of air embolism. Administering oxygen (B) is important, but closing the pinch clamp takes priority to prevent immediate harm. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (C) is not recommended as it can worsen air embolism by allowing air to travel to the heart. Obtaining emergency IV access (D) is not the first priority in this situation; preventing air embolism is critical.
A nurse is assessing a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Right lower quadrant pain
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Elevated blood glucose
- E. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The correct manifestations for suspected appendicitis are A, B, and C. A is correct as appendicitis typically presents with right lower quadrant pain due to inflammation of the appendix. B is correct as rebound tenderness, which is pain upon release of pressure on the abdomen, is a classic sign of appendicitis. C is correct as nausea and vomiting are common symptoms due to irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. D and E are incorrect as elevated blood glucose and hypotension are not commonly associated with appendicitis.
A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client has decreased mucus production.
- B. The clients daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
- C. The client has a respiratory rate of 24/min.
- D. The client reports no nighttime coughing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an increase in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) by 85% above their personal best indicates improved lung function, which is a positive response to salmeterol. This demonstrates that the medication is effectively managing the asthma symptoms.
Choice A is incorrect because decreased mucus production is not a direct indicator of salmeterol's effectiveness in treating asthma. Choice C is incorrect as the respiratory rate alone does not provide specific information about the medication's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect since the absence of nighttime coughing may be due to various factors and not solely because of salmeterol's effectiveness.