Nokea
A nurse is monitoring an older adult client who has an exacerbation of chronic lymphocytic leukemi The nurse notes petechiae on the client's skin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the client's blood type.
- B. Avoid administering IV pain medication.
- C. Institute bleeding precautions.
- D. Implement airborne precautions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Institute bleeding precautions. Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. In chronic lymphocytic leukemia, the client's platelet count may be low, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By instituting bleeding precautions, the nurse can help prevent injuries that could result in further bleeding. Determining the client's blood type (A) is not necessary in this situation. Avoiding IV pain medication (B) is not directly related to managing petechiae. Implementing airborne precautions (D) is not relevant to the client's presentation with petechiae.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should expect which of the following as an early manifestation of increased ICP?
- A. Projectile vomiting
- B. Decorticate posturing
- C. Restlessness
- D. Papilledema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restlessness. In early stages of increased ICP, the brain tries to compensate by increasing blood flow to maintain perfusion, leading to restlessness. Projectile vomiting (A) is a late sign due to pressure on the vomiting center. Decorticate posturing (B) and papilledema (D) are late signs of increased ICP.
A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to several clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse clarify the prescription with the provider before administration?
- A. A client who has a history of asthma
- B. A client who has hypertension
- C. A client who has a history of migraines
- D. A client who has stable angina
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A client who has a history of asthma. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can potentially cause bronchoconstriction in clients with asthma due to its beta-2 antagonistic effects. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider for this client to avoid exacerbating respiratory issues. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for propranolol administration, as hypertension, migraines, and stable angina are conditions that can be treated with beta-blockers. It is important for the nurse to assess each client's medical history and consider potential contraindications before administering medications to ensure client safety and optimal outcomes.
A nurse is analyzing the ABG results of a client who is in respiratory acidosis. Which of the following mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for this acid-base imbalance?
- A. Retention of carbon dioxide
- B. Loss of bicarbonate
- C. Excessive vomiting
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Retention of carbon dioxide. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. This imbalance occurs when the lungs are unable to eliminate enough CO2 through respiration, causing it to accumulate in the bloodstream. This excess CO2 combines with water in the blood to form carbonic acid, leading to acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the accumulation of CO2 in respiratory acidosis. Loss of bicarbonate (B) would lead to metabolic acidosis, excessive vomiting (C) would cause metabolic alkalosis, and hyperventilation (D) would actually help in decreasing CO2 levels, which is not the case in respiratory acidosis.
A nurse is preparing to administer daily medications to a client who is undergoing a procedure at 1000 that requires IV contrast dye. Which of the following routine medications to give at 0800 should the nurse withhold?
- A. Fluticasone
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Metformin
- D. Valproic acid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Metformin. The nurse should withhold metformin before the procedure with IV contrast dye due to the risk of lactic acidosis. IV contrast dye can affect kidney function, leading to an increased risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Fluticasone (A), metoprolol (B), and valproic acid (D) are not contraindicated before the procedure with IV contrast dye. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid, metoprolol is a beta-blocker, and valproic acid is an anticonvulsant. These medications are not typically affected by IV contrast dye and can be safely administered.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take stimulant laxatives daily to relieve constipation.
- B. Avoid fiber-rich foods to prevent bloating.
- C. Increase water intake and use bulk-forming laxatives.
- D. Eat a low-carbohydrate diet to reduce symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. Increase water intake and use bulk-forming laxatives.
Rationale: Increasing water intake helps soften stool, easing constipation in IBS-C. Bulk-forming laxatives add fiber to stool, improving bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives (A) can lead to dependency. Avoiding fiber-rich foods (B) worsens constipation. A low-carbohydrate diet (D) may exacerbate constipation.