A nurse is performing a neurological examination on a client as part of a complete physical assessment. The nurse should identify that cranial nerve XI is intact when the client performs which of the following actions?
- A. Shrugs his shoulders
- B. Sticks his tongue out
- C. Frowns symmetrically
- D. Identifies a sour taste
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrugs his shoulders. Cranial nerve XI, also known as the spinal accessory nerve, is responsible for controlling the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are involved in shoulder shrugging. When the nurse asks the client to shrug his shoulders against resistance, she is testing the integrity of cranial nerve XI. This action allows the nurse to assess the strength and function of this particular cranial nerve.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they test other cranial nerves. Sticking the tongue out (B) tests cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve), frowning symmetrically (C) tests cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), and identifying a sour taste (D) tests cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). These actions do not involve cranial nerve XI and are therefore not indicators of its intactness.
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A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a 3-year-old child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prepare to assist with intubation.
- B. Obtain a throat culture.
- C. Suction the child's oropharynx.
- D. Prepare a cool mist tent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare to assist with intubation. Epiglottitis is a medical emergency where the swelling of the epiglottis can rapidly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress or failure. Intubation is crucial to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a throat culture (B) may delay necessary intervention. Suctioning the oropharynx (C) can trigger spasm and worsen the obstruction. Cool mist tent (D) does not address the immediate need for securing the airway.
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
- A. Acetylcysteine
- B. Protamine
- C. Naloxone
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression. In this case, the client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates opioid overdose due to hydromorphone. Naloxone administration can help reverse the respiratory depression and restore normal breathing.
Choice A: Acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, not opioid overdose.
Choice B: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not opioids.
Choice D: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist, not an opioid antagonist.
Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Naloxone to address the opioid overdose and respiratory depression.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Shuffling gait
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shuffling gait. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to cause extrapyramidal side effects like shuffling gait, which can indicate a serious movement disorder called tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly to the provider is crucial for early intervention. Weight gain (A) and dry mouth (B) are common side effects of many medications, including haloperidol, but they are not considered urgent to report. Sedation (D) is a common side effect of haloperidol, but it is not typically a sign of a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate attention.
A nurse is planning care for a client who sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to support the client's nutritional requirements?
- A. Maintain calorie intake at 1,500 per day
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Keep a calorie count for foods and beverages.
- D. Schedule meals at 6-hr intervals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep a calorie count for foods and beverages. For a client with major burn injuries, accurate monitoring of calorie intake is crucial to support nutritional requirements for wound healing and metabolic demands. This intervention allows the nurse to adjust the diet as needed to meet the client's energy needs. Choice A is incorrect as calorie intake requirements may vary based on individual needs. Choice B is incorrect as a high-protein diet is essential for wound healing in burn patients. Choice D is incorrect as frequent, smaller meals are typically recommended for burn patients to support healing and prevent muscle breakdown.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving brachytherapy for endometrial cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discard the radioactive source in the client's trash can.
- B. Place the client's soiled bed linens in a biohazard bag outside the client's room
- C. Wear an isolation gown when caring for the client
- D. Keep visitors at least 6 feet (1.8 m) away from the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Keep visitors at least 6 feet (1.8 m) away from the client. This is important in brachytherapy as the client is emitting radiation. By keeping visitors at a safe distance, the nurse ensures their safety from radiation exposure. A: Discarding the radioactive source in the trash can is incorrect as it poses a risk to others. B: Placing soiled linens in a biohazard bag is not directly related to radiation safety. C: Wearing an isolation gown does not provide sufficient protection against radiation. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to maintain distance to prevent radiation exposure to visitors.