Nokea
A nurse is performing a routine physical examination on an adolescent client who asks, 'Why do I have to use a condom if my girlfriend is on the pill?' Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. You need to use two forms of birth control so if one fails you have a second form of protection against pregnancy.
- B. Using a condom allows you to share the responsibility for birth control.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less than 99 percent effective in adolescents. Therefore, a second form of contraception is needed.
- D. Oral contraceptives are highly effective in preventing pregnancy but do not prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should explain that while oral contraceptives are highly effective in preventing pregnancy, they do not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). This is important because even if the girlfriend is on the pill, using a condom is necessary to prevent STD transmission. Adolescents are at higher risk for STDs, so it is crucial to emphasize the importance of dual protection. Choice A is incorrect as it does not specifically address the risk of STD transmission. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on shared responsibility rather than the health implications of using a condom. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes the effectiveness of oral contraceptives rather than the need for STD protection.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation and is HIV positive. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer penicillin G 2.4 million units IM to the client
- B. Instruct the client to schedule an annual pelvic examination
- C. Tell the client she will start medication for HIV immediately after delivery
- D. Report the client’s condition to the local health department
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Reporting the client's HIV positive status to the local health department is crucial for monitoring and preventing the spread of the infection. This action ensures proper follow-up care, contact tracing, and support services for the client and at-risk individuals. Administering penicillin G (choice A) is not indicated for HIV positive status. Instructing the client to schedule a pelvic examination (choice B) is unrelated to the client's HIV status. Delaying HIV medication until after delivery (choice C) can pose risks to both the mother and the baby.
Which assessment finding indicates that placental separation has occurred during the third stage of labor?
- A. Decreased vaginal bleeding
- B. Contractions stop
- C. Maternal shaking and chills
- D. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lengthening of the umbilical cord. This indicates placental separation as the placenta detaches from the uterine wall, causing the cord to lengthen. A: Decreased vaginal bleeding is incorrect as bleeding typically increases due to separation. B: Contractions stopping is not indicative of placental separation but can occur after the placenta is delivered. C: Maternal shaking and chills are signs of postpartum shivering, not placental separation.
Two hours after delivery the nurse assesses the client and documents that the fundus is soft, boggy, above the level of the umbilicus, and displaced to the right side. The nurse encourages the client to void. Which is the rationale for this nursing action?
- A. A full bladder prevents normal contractions of the uterus.
- B. An overdistended bladder may press against the episiotomy causing dehiscence.
- C. Distention of the bladder can cause urinary stasis and infection.
- D. It makes the client more comfortable when the fundus is massaged.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A full bladder prevents normal contractions of the uterus. A full bladder can impede the involution process of the uterus by exerting pressure on it, inhibiting proper contraction. This can lead to postpartum hemorrhage and increased risk of retained placental fragments. Encouraging the client to void helps to relieve the pressure on the uterus, allowing it to contract effectively and aiding in the expulsion of lochia and prevention of complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: An overdistended bladder may press against the episiotomy causing dehiscence - While this is a potential risk, it is not directly related to fundal assessment and contraction.
C: Distention of the bladder can cause urinary stasis and infection - While true, this is not the primary concern when assessing the fundus post-delivery.
D: It makes the client more comfortable when the fundus is massaged - Massaging the fundus is a separate intervention and does
For a client in the second trimester of pregnancy, which assessment data support a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)?
- A. Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness
- B. Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month
- C. Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria
- D. Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is characterized by high blood pressure (systolic ≥140 mmHg and/or diastolic ≥90 mmHg) and proteinuria. In this case, the blood pressure reading of 168/110 indicates hypertension, and 3+ proteinuria indicates significant protein in the urine, both of which are key diagnostic criteria for PIH.
A: Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness - These are not specific indicators of PIH.
B: Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month - These symptoms are not typically associated with PIH.
D: Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL - Hematuria suggests blood in the urine, which is not a typical finding in PIH, and elevated blood glucose is more indicative of diabetes rather than PIH.
Therefore,
A nurse on a pediatric unit is assigned to care for a child with Reye syndrome. Which of the following is the most serious clinical manifestation for which the nurse should monitor?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Impaired coagulation
- D. Hypervolemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. In Reye syndrome, cerebral edema is the most serious manifestation due to increased intracranial pressure, potentially leading to brain damage or death. Anaphylaxis (A) is not typically associated with Reye syndrome. Impaired coagulation (C) can occur but is not as immediately life-threatening as cerebral edema. Hypervolemia (D) is a possible complication but not as critical as cerebral edema in Reye syndrome.