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A nurse is planning care for a client who has a lump in their right breast. Which of the following findings increases the clients risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. Daily caffeine consumption
- B. A history of seasonal allergies
- C. Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years
- D. Routine use of multivitamins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years. Long-term use of oral contraceptives has been associated with a slightly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Estrogen and progesterone in oral contraceptives can stimulate the growth of breast tissue, potentially leading to cancer over time. Daily caffeine consumption (choice A) and a history of seasonal allergies (choice B) do not have a direct correlation with an increased risk of breast cancer. Routine use of multivitamins (choice D) is generally not linked to an increased risk of breast cancer.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has dumping syndrome following a gastric resection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of dumping syndrome?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Iron-deficiency anemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron-deficiency anemia. Dumping syndrome following a gastric resection can lead to rapid emptying of the stomach contents into the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients, especially iron. Iron-deficiency anemia can develop due to inadequate iron absorption. Monitoring for anemia is crucial in these clients.
Hyperkalemia (A), hypoglycemia (B), and hypertension (D) are not typical complications of dumping syndrome. Hyperkalemia is high potassium levels, hypoglycemia is low blood sugar, and hypertension is high blood pressure, which are not directly associated with dumping syndrome.
A nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client who is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which of the following findings indicate the client is most likely experiencing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Unilateral right lower extremity swelling and warmth below the knee
- B. Pain level as 2 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Ambulating in hallway with assistance
- D. Not wearing sequential compression devices
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Unilateral right lower extremity swelling and warmth below the knee are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The swelling occurs due to blood clot formation, leading to impaired venous return and warmth due to inflammation. Choice B is incorrect because pain level alone is not a specific indicator of DVT. Choice C is incorrect as ambulating with assistance does not directly relate to DVT. Choice D is incorrect as not wearing sequential compression devices does not definitively indicate DVT.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of Cushings triad?
- A. Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg
- B. Decrease in heart rate to 120 bpm
- C. Rapid shallow respirations
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg. Cushing's triad is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), seen in traumatic brain injury. It consists of hypertension (elevated blood pressure), bradycardia (not tachycardia), and irregular respirations (not rapid shallow respirations). The increase in blood pressure is due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion in response to the increased ICP. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the classic presentation of Cushing's triad in traumatic brain injury.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving intermittent IV fluids via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the clients plan of care?
- A. Assess the PICC infusion system systematically.
- B. Flush the line only before infusing medication.
- C. Use a sterile dressing for the catheter site every 7 days.
- D. Allow the catheter to remain uncapped when not in use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the PICC infusion system systematically. This is essential to monitor for signs of infection, occlusion, or dislodgement of the catheter. Regular assessment can help identify any issues early and prevent complications.
Summary:
B: Flushing the line only before infusing medication is incorrect as regular flushing is necessary to maintain catheter patency.
C: Using a sterile dressing every 7 days is incorrect as the dressing should be changed according to facility protocol or if it becomes soiled or loose.
D: Allowing the catheter to remain uncapped when not in use is incorrect as it can increase the risk of contamination and infection.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Maintain abduction of the affected extremity.
- B. Position the client in high Fowlers position.
- C. Encourage the client to cross their legs at the ankles.
- D. Have the client bend forward at the waist while sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain abduction of the affected extremity. This is crucial post total hip arthroplasty to prevent dislocation. Abduction helps keep the hip joint stable and reduces the risk of the prosthesis slipping out of place. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High Fowler's position (B) is not necessary for this specific postoperative care. Crossing legs at the ankles (C) can lead to hip dislocation. Having the client bend forward at the waist (D) can also increase the risk of dislocation.