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A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?
- A. Change the PN infusion bag every 48 hr.
- B. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
- C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
- D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion separately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prepare the client for a central venous line. Parenteral nutrition (PN) with high dextrose concentrations can cause phlebitis and tissue damage if administered through a peripheral IV line. Therefore, a central venous line is appropriate for administering PN to prevent complications. Changing the PN bag every 48 hours (A) is important for infection control but not directly related to the administration method. Obtaining a random blood glucose daily (B) is important for monitoring glucose levels but does not address the administration method. Administering the PN and fat emulsion separately (D) is not necessary as they can be mixed in the same solution.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia. When assisting the client during breakfast, which of the following actions by the client indicates the nurse should intervene?
- A. The client drinks their thickened juice with a straw.
- B. The client adjusts the head of their bed to 90°.
- C. The client tucks their chin when they swallow.
- D. The client takes frequent breaks while eating.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. The client drinking thickened juice with a straw indicates a potential aspiration risk. Straws can bypass the oral phase of swallowing, increasing the likelihood of aspiration. Thickened liquids are meant to slow down the flow of fluids to prevent choking or aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should intervene to prevent potential harm to the client.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Adjusting the head of the bed to 90° is the correct positioning to prevent aspiration during swallowing.
C: Tucking the chin when swallowing helps to protect the airway and prevent aspiration.
D: Taking frequent breaks while eating is a good strategy for clients with dysphagia to prevent fatigue and reduce the risk of aspiration.
A nurse is teaching a class about the guidelines for the standards of care for nursing. Which of the following defines the nursing scope of practice?
- A. The JEN Consultant
- B. Podcast League for Nursing
- C. Postnote ID # of Rights
- D. State Nurse Practice Acts
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: State Nurse Practice Acts. State Nurse Practice Acts define the legal scope of practice for nurses in each state, outlining what tasks and responsibilities nurses can perform. These acts help ensure patient safety and quality care by setting standards for nursing practice. Choice A, B, and C are unrelated to nursing scope of practice and do not provide any guidelines or regulations for nurses. Therefore, they are incorrect options.
A nurse is preparing to administer prescribed medications to a client. According to the rights of medication administration, when should the nurse compare the medication administration record against the medication container? (Select all that apply.)
- A. While removing medication from the container
- B. Before selecting the medication container
- C. When documenting the medication administration
- D. When providing client education about the medication
- E. At the client's bedside before administering the medication
Correct Answer: A, B,E
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and E. Comparing the medication administration record against the container before removing the medication ensures accuracy. Before selecting the container, the nurse confirms the correct medication. At the client's bedside, the nurse verifies the medication before administration to prevent errors. Choice C is incorrect because documentation should occur after administration. Choice D is incorrect as medication reconciliation is not part of client education.
A nurse is assessing a client's cranial nerve VII. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect?
- A. The client turns their head against resistance.
- B. The client's tongue is in a midline position.
- C. The client's pupils constrict in response to light.
- D. The client has a symmetrical smile.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client has a symmetrical smile. Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve, controls facial expression including smiling. When assessing this nerve, the nurse would expect the client to have a symmetrical smile indicating intact function. This is because cranial nerve VII innervates the muscles of facial expression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not specific to cranial nerve VII assessment. The turning of the head against resistance (A) would be more related to cranial nerve XI, the accessory nerve. The tongue position (B) is controlled by cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve. Pupillary constriction in response to light (C) is regulated by cranial nerve II, the optic nerve.
A home health nurse is performing a fall risk assessment for an older adult client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential fall risk in the home?
- A. The client takes an antihypertensive medication.
- B. The client has electrical wires secured to baseboards.
- C. The client wears rubber-sole shoes.
- D. The client's visual acuity is 20/40.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking antihypertensive medication can lead to orthostatic hypotension, increasing fall risk. Choice B is incorrect as securing electrical wires actually reduces tripping hazards. Choice C is incorrect as rubber-sole shoes provide better traction. Choice D is incorrect as 20/40 visual acuity alone may not directly contribute to fall risk.