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A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and a history of wandering. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Move client to a double room.
- B. Use chemical restraints at bedtime.
- C. Use a bed alarm.
- D. Encourage participation in activities that provide excessive stimulation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use a bed alarm. This option promotes client safety by alerting the nurse when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of wandering. Moving the client to a double room (A) does not address the wandering behavior. Using chemical restraints (B) is unethical and can lead to adverse effects. Encouraging excessive stimulation (D) can escalate agitation and wandering behavior.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Crackles
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Daytime oliguria
- D. Halo vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles. Left-sided heart failure causes fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. Crackles are indicative of fluid in the alveoli, a common sign of pulmonary edema in heart failure. Decreased urine output (B), daytime oliguria (C), and halo vision (D) are not specific to left-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output and oliguria are more associated with kidney dysfunction, while halo vision is related to eye conditions like cataracts.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can take another dose after 2 minutes.'
- B. I can put the tablet against my cheek and gum.'
- C. I should chew the tablet before I swallow it.'
- D. I should take this medication as soon as the pain begins.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I can take another dose after 2 minutes." This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because sublingual nitroglycerin is typically used for acute chest pain relief due to angina, and the client should take another dose if the pain persists after 5 minutes, up to a total of 3 doses at 5-minute intervals. This is crucial for managing angina attacks effectively.
Choice B is incorrect because the tablet should be placed under the tongue, not against the cheek and gum. Choice C is incorrect because the tablet should not be chewed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be taken at the onset of chest pain, not after the pain begins, for optimal efficacy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer prior to chemotherapy?
- A. Selenaline
- B. Ondansetron
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Methylprednisolone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic medication that helps prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and chemoreceptor trigger zone. Administering ondansetron before chemotherapy can effectively reduce the incidence of these side effects. Selenaline (A) is not a recognized medication for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Diphenhydramine (C) is an antihistamine that may be used for other types of nausea but is not the first-line treatment for chemotherapy-induced nausea. Methylprednisolone (D) is a corticosteroid that may be used to reduce inflammation but is not typically used as a primary antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
A nurse is admitting a client who reports tightness in their chest that radiates to left arm. Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up?
- A. Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F)
- B. Heart rate 110/min and irregular
- C. Respiratory rate 24/min
- D. Blood pressure 164/80 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate 110/min and irregular. This finding indicates potential cardiac issues like myocardial infarction. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess for any life-threatening conditions. The other options are not as urgent. A: Temperature within normal range, C: Respiratory rate slightly elevated but not critical, D: Elevated blood pressure but not as concerning as irregular heart rate.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new onset of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which of the following interventions by the nurse is the highest priority?
- A. Administer Insulin.
- B. Teach the client about manifestations of HHS.
- C. Measure the client's urinary output.
- D. Initiate IV fluid replacement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Initiate IV fluid replacement. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS), the client is severely dehydrated due to high blood glucose levels. IV fluid replacement is the highest priority to rehydrate the client and improve circulation. Administering insulin (A) is important but not the highest priority as fluid replacement takes precedence. Teaching the client about manifestations of HHS (B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Measuring urinary output (C) is important to assess renal function but not as critical as rehydrating the client.