Nokea
A nurse is planning care for a client who has developed nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Increase phosphorus intake.
- B. Decrease carbohydrate intake.
- C. Decrease protein intake.
- D. Increase potassium intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease protein intake. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Decreasing protein intake helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and minimizes protein loss in the urine, supporting management of the condition. Increasing phosphorus intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen kidney function. Decreasing carbohydrate intake (choice B) and increasing potassium intake (choice D) are not directly related to managing nephrotic syndrome.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has acute angina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Measure blood pressure.
- B. Administer aspirin.
- C. Administer nitroglycerin.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer aspirin. Aspirin helps to reduce platelet aggregation and prevent further clot formation in clients with acute angina, thus reducing the risk of myocardial infarction. Administering aspirin should be the first action as it addresses the immediate risk of clot formation and helps improve blood flow to the heart muscle.
Measuring blood pressure (A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Administering nitroglycerin (C) is important for symptom relief but does not address the underlying cause. Initiating IV access (D) may be necessary later for further interventions, but it is not the first priority.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications.
- B. Maintain the client on NPO status.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Monitor the client for hypercalcemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain the client on NPO status. In acute pancreatitis, the pancreas is inflamed, leading to digestive enzyme release and potential autodigestion of pancreatic tissue. Keeping the client NPO (nothing by mouth) helps rest the pancreas by reducing stimulation of enzyme secretion. This allows the pancreas to heal and decreases the risk of further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (A) is not typically a priority for acute pancreatitis. Placing the client in a supine position (C) may not directly impact the pancreatitis. Monitoring for hypercalcemia (D) is important in chronic pancreatitis but not typically a primary intervention in the acute phase.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. These discomforts should decrease with time.'
- B. You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina.'
- C. Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue.'
- D. Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels." This response is correct because vaginal dryness and itching are common symptoms of vaginal atrophy, which is often caused by decreased estrogen levels in older adult women. The nurse's acknowledgment and explanation of this physiological change can help the client understand the root cause of her symptoms and guide further discussion on appropriate treatment options, such as hormone therapy or vaginal moisturizers.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the client's discomfort without addressing the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides potentially harmful advice without addressing the issue. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the condition of vaginal tissue in older women.
A nurse working in an outpatient clinic is planning a community education program about reproductive cancers. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a possible indication of cervical cancer?
- A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding
- B. Frequent diarrhea
- C. Urinary hesitancy
- D. Unexplained weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormal vaginal bleeding. This is a possible indication of cervical cancer because it can be a symptom of cervical dysplasia or cervical cancer. Bleeding between periods, after intercourse, or post-menopausal bleeding may indicate cervical cancer. Frequent diarrhea (B), urinary hesitancy (C), and unexplained weight gain (D) are not typically associated with cervical cancer. Diarrhea and urinary hesitancy are more commonly linked to gastrointestinal or urinary issues, while unexplained weight gain may be indicative of hormonal imbalances or other health conditions unrelated to cervical cancer.
A nurse is assessing a client who has anorexia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of malnutrition?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Alopecia
- C. Increased salivation
- D. Dolichocephaly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry skin. Malnutrition can lead to a deficiency in essential nutrients like vitamins and minerals, causing skin to become dry and flaky. This occurs due to a lack of proper hydration and nourishment. Alopecia (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like stress or hormonal imbalances. Increased salivation (C) is not typically linked to malnutrition but can be seen in conditions like GERD. Dolichocephaly (D) refers to an elongated shape of the head and is not directly related to malnutrition. In summary, dry skin is a manifestation of malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients, while the other choices are more likely associated with different conditions or factors.