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A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching plan?
- A. Avoid all forms of sugar
- B. Check blood glucose levels once a week
- C. Rotate insulin injection sites
- D. Monitor urine ketone levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rotate insulin injection sites. This instruction is crucial to prevent lipohypertrophy, which can lead to inconsistent insulin absorption. By rotating injection sites, the client ensures proper insulin absorption and prevents complications. Checking blood glucose levels once a week (B) is not frequent enough for proper diabetes management. Avoiding all forms of sugar (A) is an outdated approach, as moderation is key. Monitoring urine ketone levels (D) is not as reliable as blood ketone testing for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis risk.
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A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate because the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. Carbohydrates will quickly raise the blood sugar level. Glucagon injection is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Providing a snack with protein is not the immediate action needed to raise the blood sugar rapidly. Encouraging rest is not effective in treating hypoglycemia.
The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
- C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL. This finding indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Low calcium levels can be caused by TPN administration or poor calcium absorption following bowel resection. Immediate intervention may include administering IV calcium gluconate.
A: Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range and not an immediate concern.
B: White blood cell count of 8000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
C: Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat.
A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Take the medication with meals
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- C. Limit sodium intake
- D. Take the medication at bedtime
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Phenytoin interacts with alcohol, increasing the risk of side effects such as dizziness and drowsiness. Alcohol can also reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Taking the medication with meals (choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but does not address the alcohol interaction. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary for all clients and does not address the alcohol interaction.
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Place the child in a mist tent. This intervention is crucial in managing a child with croup, which presents with stridor, fever, and respiratory distress. Placing the child in a mist tent provides humidified air, which can help reduce airway inflammation and ease breathing. It is the first-line treatment for croup and should be initiated promptly to relieve the child's symptoms. Obtaining a sputum culture (B) is not necessary in this scenario as the child's presentation is consistent with croup, which is a clinical diagnosis. Preparing for an emergent tracheostomy (C) is an invasive procedure that should only be considered if other treatments fail. Examining the child's oropharynx (D) can be helpful but is not the most urgent intervention in this situation.
A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates increased concentration of urine, a sign of dehydration.
Step 2: In dehydration, the body conserves water, leading to concentrated urine.
Step 3: The child's symptoms (increased stools, liquid consistency, fever, vomiting) suggest dehydration.
Step 4: Other choices (A: occult blood, B: distention, D: hyperactive bowel sounds) are not specific to dehydration.
Summary: Elevated urine specific gravity is key as it directly reflects dehydration, unlike the other choices which are not specific indicators of dehydration.