Nokea
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
- D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min. This is the appropriate intervention because oxytocin is a potent uterotonic agent used for labor induction. By titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min, the nurse can closely monitor and adjust the dose to achieve the desired uterine contractions without causing hyperstimulation. Increasing the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min (A) can lead to rapid and uncontrolled contractions. Maintaining the client in a supine position (B) can decrease blood flow to the placenta. Limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr (D) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration.
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What is one difference between the copper IUC and the LNG-IUC?
- A. efficacy
- B. placement in the uterus
- C. presence of a normal period
- D. shape
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: placement in the uterus. The copper IUC and LNG-IUC differ in where they are positioned in the uterus. The copper IUC is a T-shaped device placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy through copper ions, while the LNG-IUC releases hormones and is also placed in the uterus but is a different shape, typically a smaller T or a rounded shape. The placement of the device is crucial for its effectiveness and type of hormone release. Other choices (A) efficacy, (C) presence of a normal period, and (D) shape, do not directly differentiate between the two types of IUCs.
After being in labor several hours with no progress the patient diagnosed with CPD and must have a c/s. the patient is worried that she will not be able to have any future children vaginally. After sharing this info with her care provider, the nurse would anticipate should would receive what type of incision?
- A. Transverse
- B. Vertical
- C. Low vertical
- D. Pfannenstiel
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vertical incision. In cases of CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) where labor is not progressing and a cesarean section is necessary, a vertical incision is typically performed. This type of incision allows for better access to the uterus and is preferred in emergency situations like CPD. A transverse incision (choice A) is commonly used in elective c-sections but may not provide enough access in cases of CPD. Low vertical (choice C) is not ideal for CPD as it limits visibility and access. Pfannenstiel incision (choice D) is a horizontal incision placed low on the abdomen and is typically used in elective c-sections, not specifically for CPD cases.
Why would FAM not be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to a perimenopausal person?
- A. At that age, people do not have intercourse on a regular basis.
- B. They are married and do not need contraception.
- C. They have irregular menstrual periods.
- D. Pregnancy is not a concern when a person is perimenopausal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because perimenopausal individuals often have irregular menstrual periods, making FAM less reliable for tracking ovulation. Irregular periods can make it challenging to accurately predict fertile days. Choice A is incorrect because FAM is not solely for contraception but also for fertility awareness. Choice B is incorrect as FAM can still be used for tracking fertility even if contraception is not needed. Choice D is incorrect because while pregnancy risk decreases during perimenopause, it is not zero, and FAM can still be helpful for those who wish to avoid pregnancy.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum client with excessive bleeding. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids.
- B. Massage the uterine fundus.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Check the client's vital signs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Massage the uterine fundus. This is the priority intervention because excessive bleeding postpartum may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to hemorrhage. Massaging the uterine fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding. Administering IV fluids (A) can be important, but controlling bleeding takes precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (C) can be done after implementing immediate interventions. Checking vital signs (D) is important, but addressing the underlying cause of bleeding is the priority.
A woman asks about the side effects of the contraceptive implant. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. The implant will cause heavy menstrual bleeding.
- B. The implant may cause irregular bleeding patterns, including light spotting.
- C. The implant can cause weight gain.
- D. The implant may cause hair loss.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because irregular bleeding patterns, including light spotting, are a common side effect of the contraceptive implant due to hormonal changes. This is important for the woman to be aware of to manage her expectations. Choice A is incorrect as the implant typically leads to lighter periods or no periods at all. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is not a common side effect of the implant. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not typically associated with the contraceptive implant.