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A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Position the client on the affected side for 4 hr following the procedure.
- B. Instruct the client to avoid coughing during the procedure.
- C. Inform the client that he will be NPO for 6 hr prior to the procedure.
- D. Place the client in the prone position during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Instruct the client to avoid coughing during the procedure.
Rationale: Coughing during thoracentesis can increase the risk of complications such as lung puncture or bleeding. Instructing the client to avoid coughing helps maintain safety during the procedure by minimizing these risks.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Positioning the client on the affected side for 4 hours following the procedure is not necessary and may not be beneficial. It does not directly impact the safety or success of the thoracentesis.
C: NPO for 6 hours prior to the procedure is not typically required for a thoracentesis. This action is more common for procedures involving anesthesia or sedation.
D: Placing the client in the prone position during the procedure is not recommended for thoracentesis. The client is usually positioned upright or slightly leaning forward to facilitate the procedure.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger about his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer.
- B. Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness.
- C. Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief.
- D. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief. By reassuring the client that feeling anger about the diagnosis of colorectal cancer is a normal part of the grieving process, the nurse acknowledges the client's emotions and validates their experience. This can help the client feel understood and supported, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Discussing risk factors (A) may not address the client's current emotional needs. Teaching future management (B) may be premature as the client is currently expressing anger. Providing written information on loss and grief phases (C) may not directly address the client's anger. Therefore, the best immediate action is to validate the client's emotions and offer reassurance (D).
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Oliguria
- B. Hypotension
- C. Weight loss
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hematuria. In acute glomerulonephritis, inflammation of the glomeruli causes blood to leak into the urine, resulting in hematuria. This is a classic sign of the condition. Oliguria (A) is decreased urine output, not typically associated with glomerulonephritis. Hypotension (B) is not a common finding as fluid retention is more likely. Weight loss (C) is not a typical symptom, as fluid retention and edema are more common. In summary, hematuria is the hallmark sign of acute glomerulonephritis, distinguishing it from the other choices.
A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
- A. First-degree atrioventricular block
- B. Complete heart block
- C. Premature atrial complexes
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. In first-degree AV block, the delay causes a prolonged P-R interval, which is consistent with the 0.35 seconds observed. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a consistent delay but all atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles.
B: Complete heart block would show a lack of association between P waves and QRS complexes, with no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C: Premature atrial complexes are early electrical impulses originating in the atria, resulting in abnormal P waves and irregular rhythm, not a constant P-R interval.
D: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response, not a constant P-R interval.
A nurse is caring for a client who requires nasotracheal suctioning. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow to perform suctioning.
- A. Rinse the catheter to remove secretions.
- B. Insert the catheter during the client's inspiration.
- C. Turn on the suction and set the pressure.
- D. Don sterile gloves
- E. Apply sunction while rotating catheter
Correct Answer: D,C,B,E,A
Rationale: Correct Order: D, C, B, E, A
Rationale:
1. Don sterile gloves (D): Ensures infection control and prevents cross-contamination.
2. Turn on suction and set pressure (C): Prepares equipment and ensures proper functioning.
3. Insert catheter during client's inspiration (B): Reduces risk of inducing hypoxia.
4. Apply suction while rotating catheter (E): Maximizes removal of secretions.
5. Rinse catheter to remove secretions (A): Ensures cleanliness and prevents re-introduction of secretions.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
- F and G are not applicable in this sequence.
- Inserting the catheter during inspiration (B) is correct, not during expiration.
- Rinsing the catheter (A) is done after suctioning, not before.
A newly licensed nurse working at an HIV clinic is reviewing the responsibilities of her position at the clinic. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as tertiary prevention?
- A. Using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications.
- B. Educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations.
- C. Helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans.
- D. Providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and minimizing the impact of a disease or condition to prevent complications or further deterioration. By reminding clients to take their medications, the nurse is helping to prevent disease progression and improve health outcomes.
Choice B, educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations, is an example of secondary prevention as it aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications.
Choice C, helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans, is an example of primary prevention as it aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition.
Choice D, providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise, is also an example of primary prevention as it focuses on promoting overall health and preventing the development of diseases.