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A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the operative site once daily
- B. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr
- C. Give cromolyn nebulized solution every 8 hr.
- D. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr. Postoperative pain management is crucial to ensure the child's comfort and facilitate recovery. Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis helps maintain a consistent level of pain relief and prevents breakthrough pain. This approach is especially important in the immediate postoperative period when pain levels are typically higher. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because applying a warm compress, giving cromolyn nebulized solution, and offering clear liquids are not primary interventions for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Option D specifically is not recommended as clear liquids are usually introduced gradually to prevent complications. Providing analgesics on a scheduled basis is the best course of action to address the child's immediate postoperative pain effectively.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal hypoglycemia
- B. Chorioamnionitis
- C. Fetal anemia
- D. Maternal fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C (Fetal anemia)
Rationale: Fetal anemia can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus, causing fetal bradycardia. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in the heart working harder to compensate for the decreased oxygen levels, leading to a lower fetal heart rate.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Maternal hypoglycemia - Unlikely to cause fetal bradycardia directly.
B: Chorioamnionitis - Typically presents with maternal fever and tachycardia, not fetal bradycardia.
D: Maternal fever - Can cause fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Place the client's head of bed flat
- B. Apply heat to the client's abdomen
- C. Keep the client on NPO status
- D. Administer a laxative to the client.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep the client on NPO status. This is essential to prevent exacerbation of appendicitis by reducing the risk of bowel obstruction or rupture. Allowing the intestine to rest helps decrease inflammation and pain. Placing the client's head of bed flat (A) can increase intra-abdominal pressure, worsening the condition. Applying heat to the abdomen (B) can mask symptoms and potentially lead to delay in diagnosis. Administering a laxative (D) is contraindicated as it can increase the risk of perforation. In summary, maintaining NPO status is crucial for managing acute appendicitis effectively.
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
- A. Acetylcysteine
- B. Protamine
- C. Naloxone
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression. In this case, the client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates opioid overdose due to hydromorphone. Naloxone administration can help reverse the respiratory depression and restore normal breathing.
Choice A: Acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, not opioid overdose.
Choice B: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not opioids.
Choice D: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist, not an opioid antagonist.
Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Naloxone to address the opioid overdose and respiratory depression.
A nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client and notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed
- B. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record
- C. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident
- D. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This is the best course of action as it allows the nurse to verify the accuracy of the IV infusion against the prescribed treatment plan. By cross-referencing the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record, the nurse can identify any discrepancies and take appropriate actions to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because contacting the charge nurse may not provide the necessary information to verify the accuracy of the IV infusion. Choice B is incorrect as completing an incident report is premature without first verifying the discrepancy. Choice C is inappropriate and punitive without a proper investigation. Choices E, F, and G are not provided in the question, so they are irrelevant.
A nurse is caring for a client whose child died from cancer. The client states, 'It's hard to go on without him.' Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client first?
- A. What has helped you through difficult times in the past?'
- B. Has anyone in your family committed suicide?'
- C. Is there anyone you would like involved in your care?'
- D. Are you thinking about ending your life?'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct question to ask first is D: "Are you thinking about ending your life?" This is important to assess the client's risk of suicide, as the statement "It's hard to go on without him" can indicate suicidal ideation. It is crucial to address safety concerns immediately. Asking about coping strategies (A) can come later. Inquiring about family suicide history (B) may not be relevant at this stage. Involving others in care (C) is important but not as urgent as assessing suicidal thoughts.