Nokea
A nurse is preparing a client for a radiation treatment who is postoperative following a mastectomy. The nurse should inform the client to expect which of the following adverse effects from the treatment?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Fatigue
- D. Skin irritation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fatigue. Radiation treatment can cause fatigue as it affects healthy cells in addition to cancer cells, leading to increased tiredness. Hair loss (A) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, while nausea and vomiting (B) are typical side effects of chemotherapy or certain medications. Skin irritation (D) is a common side effect of radiation treatment, but fatigue is the primary adverse effect in this scenario due to its impact on overall energy levels.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is planning care for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury at risk for UTIs. What should be included?
- A. Limit fluid intake.
- B. Encourage fluid intake at and between meals.
- C. Restrict intake of acidic foods.
- D. Use an indwelling catheter continuously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage fluid intake at and between meals. This is because increasing fluid intake helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Limiting fluid intake (choice A) can lead to concentrated urine, making it easier for bacteria to multiply. Restricting acidic foods (choice C) does not directly impact the risk of UTIs. Using an indwelling catheter continuously (choice D) actually increases the risk of UTIs due to the constant presence of a foreign body in the urinary tract. Encouraging fluid intake at and between meals is the most effective way to prevent UTIs in clients with spinal cord injuries.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the right forearm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching as a possible indication of venous insufficiency?
- A. Cold and numbness distal to the fistula site
- B. Swelling around the fistula
- C. Bleeding from the fistula
- D. Pain at the site of fistula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cold and numbness distal to the fistula site. This is indicative of venous insufficiency, which can occur when the arteriovenous fistula is not functioning properly. When there is inadequate blood flow through the fistula, it can result in reduced circulation to the distal part of the arm, leading to coldness and numbness. Swelling around the fistula (choice B) is more commonly associated with infection or inadequate drainage. Bleeding from the fistula (choice C) is a potential complication but not a typical manifestation of venous insufficiency. Pain at the site of the fistula (choice D) may indicate infection or clotting issues rather than venous insufficiency.
A nurse is assessing a client who reports numbness and pain in his right palm, index finger, and middle finger. The client reports working with a keyboard most of the time while at work. The nurse suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests should the nurse request that the client perform?
- A. Tinel's sign
- B. Phalen's test
- C. Rinne's test
- D. Romberg test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phalen's test. Phalen's test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by having the client flex the wrists and press the backs of the hands together for 1 minute to compress the median nerve. This test reproduces symptoms in individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome due to increased pressure on the median nerve. Tinel's sign (A) is used to assess for nerve compression, but it is not specific to carpal tunnel syndrome. Rinne's test (C) is used to assess for hearing loss. Romberg test (D) is used to assess for balance and proprioception issues. Choices E, F, and G are not relevant to assessing carpal tunnel syndrome.
A nurse is teaching a client about the causes of osteoporosis. The nurse should include which of the following types of medication therapy as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Aspirin therapy
- B. Calcium supplements
- C. Estrogen therapy
- D. Thyroid hormones
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thyroid hormones. Excessive use of thyroid hormones can lead to osteoporosis by increasing bone turnover and reducing bone mineral density. Thyroid hormones can interfere with the normal process of bone formation and resorption, leading to weakened bones. Aspirin therapy (A) is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Calcium supplements (B) are actually recommended to prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy (C) is also not a risk factor; in fact, estrogen helps to maintain bone density.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system and needs to be transported to the x-ray department. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube during transport.
- B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times.
- C. Remove the chest tube for transport.
- D. Allow the client to carry the drainage system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times. This is crucial because maintaining the drainage system below the chest level prevents backflow of air or fluid into the client's chest cavity, which can lead to complications like tension pneumothorax or fluid re-entering the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube can cause a build-up of pressure and should only be done in emergency situations. Removing the chest tube is unsafe and can lead to respiratory distress. Allowing the client to carry the drainage system can risk dislodging the tube or causing tension on the connections. Therefore, the best option is to keep the drainage system below the chest level to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications.