A nurse is preparing a female client for a rectal examination. Into which position does the nurse assist the client?
- A. Supine
- B. Standing
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Left lateral
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a rectal examination in a female client, the nurse should assist the client into the left lateral position. This position allows easier access to the rectal area, facilitating the examination. The lithotomy position is used for examining the genitalia and rectum in females, not solely for a rectal examination. The standing position is not appropriate for a rectal examination as it does not provide the necessary access. The supine position would hinder the effectiveness of a rectal examination as it does not optimize access to the rectal area.
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When meeting nurses for the first time, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about their previous work experience, and encourages active participation. This behavior is an example of
- A. aggressiveness
- B. passive aggressiveness
- C. passiveness
- D. assertiveness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses through eye contact, smiling, and encouraging participation. This behavior shows a balance between expressing her own opinions and respecting others. Aggressive behavior would involve dominating or embarrassing others, while passive behavior is characterized by being timid or nervous. Passive-aggressive behavior is indirect and manipulative, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?
- A. Smiling
- B. Clenching the teeth
- C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
- D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.
A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................
- A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
- B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
- C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
- D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.
The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:
- A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
- B. setting goals
- C. planning
- D. specifying priorities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.
Regarding maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, a concern is that:
- A. a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care.
- B. families may not prioritize quality health care.
- C. there might be an increase in the shortage of personnel in the maternity field.
- D. maternal-child health workers may lack adequate preparation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care. This is a significant concern as lack of access to prenatal care can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes families as unconcerned, which may not be the case for all families. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no evidence or indication in the prompt to suggest an increase in the shortage of personnel. Choice D is not directly related to the concern mentioned in the prompt, which specifically focuses on the lack of prenatal care.