Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)
- A. 33 gtt/min
- B. 66 gtt/min
- C. 10 gtt/min
- D. 14 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.
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A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
- A. Stress fractures
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Gingival ulcerations
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?
- A. Increases blood pressure
- B. Prevents esophageal bleeding
- C. Decreases heart rate
- D. Reduces ammonia levels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
- A. 20 mg
- B. 15 mg
- C. 10 mg
- D. 30 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.
A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
- C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects.
- D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Amantadine
- B. Bupropion
- C. Phenelzine
- D. Hydroxyzine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amantadine. Amantadine is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as mask-like facial expressions, involuntary movements, and tremors, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Bupropion is an antidepressant and not indicated for treating these symptoms. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for extrapyramidal symptoms. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not for the side effects described in the client.