Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Heat the feeding to 105°F (40.6°C).
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- C. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- D. Verify the pH of the gastric aspirate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports taking ibuprofen daily
- B. Client has a history of asthma
- C. Client reports drinking one glass of wine daily
- D. Client has a history of diverticulitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can increase the risk of bleeding during a colonoscopy due to its effects on platelet function. It is important to report this finding to the provider to consider alternative pain management options. Choices B, C, and D are not the most pertinent to report for a colonoscopy. Asthma and a history of diverticulitis are relevant medical history but do not directly impact the colonoscopy procedure. Drinking one glass of wine daily is not a concern specifically related to the colonoscopy procedure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased WBC count.
- B. Decreased hemoglobin.
- C. Decreased platelet count.
- D. Positive rheumatoid factor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. This medication can increase your blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent diuresis at night. Option C is not necessary as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food. Option D is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is used to lower blood pressure, not increase it.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.