Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer chlordiazepoxide 50 mg PO every 8 hours to a client. The amount available is chlordiazepoxide 25 mg per capsule. How many capsules should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2 capsules
- B. 1 capsule
- C. 3 capsules
- D. 4 capsules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dose (50 mg) / concentration (25 mg/capsule) = 2 capsules per dose. Other options miscalculate the number needed to achieve 50 mg.
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A client's last menstrual period was April 11. Using Naegele's rule, her estimated date of birth (EDB) would be:
- A. 24-Feb
- B. 18-Jan
- C. 25-Jan
- D. 18-Feb
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nägele's rule: April 11, 2023 + 1 year = April 11, 2024; minus 3 months = January 11, 2024; plus 7 days = January 18, 2024. Other options incorrectly adjust months or days.
Which information on a client's health history would the nurse identify as contributing to the client's risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Recurrent pelvic infections
- B. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
- C. Use of oral contraceptives for 8 years
- D. Heavy, irregular periods
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Recurrent pelvic infections (e.g., PID) scar fallopian tubes, increasing ectopic pregnancy risk by hindering egg transport. Ovarian cysts, oral contraceptives (which reduce risk), and irregular periods don't directly contribute.
A provider prescribes quetiapine 50 mg PO divided equally every 12 hours for 3 days. Available is quetiapine 25 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose on day 3?
- A. 2 tablets
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily dose (50 mg) ÷ 2 (every 12 hours) = 25 mg per dose. At 25 mg/tablet, 25 mg ÷ 25 mg = 1 tablet per dose, consistent on day 3 as dosing doesn't change.
A nurse suspects that a pregnant client may be experiencing placenta abruption based on which finding? Select all that apply.
- A. Absence of pain
- B. Insidious onset
- C. Dark red vaginal bleeding
- D. Rigid uterus
- E. Absent fetal heart tones
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: Placental abruption involves sudden separation of the placenta, causing severe pain, a rigid uterus from bleeding, dark red vaginal bleeding due to clotted blood, and absent fetal heart tones if the fetus is compromised. Absence of pain and insidious onset are not typical, as abruption is acute and painful.
A client is suspected of having a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which assessment would the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Edema
- C. Infection
- D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A ruptured ectopic pregnancy causes internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic shock, making hemorrhage the priority assessment. Edema, infection, or jaundice may occur later but are less urgent than life-threatening bleeding.