Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:
- A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
- B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
- C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
- D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?
- A. 90 mg/dl.
- B. 115 mg/dl.
- C. 126 mg/dl.
- D. 180 mg/dl.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.
Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Tremors
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.
A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Corticosteroids can induce insulin resistance, decrease glucose uptake by tissues, and promote gluconeogenesis. While corticosteroid therapy can cause hypoglycemia in some cases, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or certain medications. Hyponatremia (choice D) is typically not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy unless there are other contributing factors present.
Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in nursing practice?
- A. Administering pain medication as prescribed to prevent patient discomfort.
- B. Ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment that they have refused.
- C. Ensuring that a patient receives appropriate care without causing harm.
- D. Encouraging a patient to express their concerns and fears about a procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In nursing practice, ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment they have refused is an example of nonmaleficence. Choice A focuses on beneficence by providing pain relief. Choice C is more aligned with beneficence as it emphasizes providing appropriate care without harm. Choice D pertains to patient communication but does not directly address the concept of nonmaleficence.
The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
- B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
- C. Complete an incident record.
- D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.