Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 0.2
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.2 mL. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration (10 mg/mL). This gives 0.2 mL. The other choices are incorrect because: A) 2 mL would be an overdose; B) 0.02 mL is too small a dose; C) 20 mL is an overdose; D) 0.02 mL is too small a dose; E) 0.02 mL is too small a dose; F) 20 mL is an overdose; G) 2 mL would be an overdose.
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A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin and gentamicin sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult first regarding medication compatibility?
- A. Health care provider
- B. Hospital pharmacist
- C. Nurse manager
- D. Medication sales representative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hospital pharmacist. The nurse should consult the pharmacist first for medication compatibility as they are experts in drug interactions and compatibility. Pharmacists can provide specific guidance on whether ampicillin and gentamicin sulfate can be safely administered together via IV infusion. Consulting the health care provider (choice A) may also be necessary for prescribing information, but pharmacists have specialized knowledge on drug interactions. The nurse manager (choice C) may not have the expertise in medication compatibility. Consulting a medication sales representative (choice D) is not appropriate as their role is to promote and sell medications rather than provide clinical guidance on compatibility.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a traditional cholecystectomy. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
- A. Supported Sims
- B. Semi-Fowler’s
- C. Dorsal recumbent
- D. Prone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s position after a cholecystectomy helps to promote optimal lung expansion and oxygenation. This position reduces pressure on the diaphragm and abdomen, allowing for improved respiratory function. Additionally, it helps prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Supported Sims position (A) is used for enemas, not post-cholecystectomy care. Dorsal recumbent position (C) is for pelvic exams, not indicated here. Prone position (D) would put pressure on the abdomen and is contraindicated post-cholecystectomy.
A nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Administer the medications 5 minutes apart.
- B. Hold pressure on the conjunctival sac for 2 minutes following application of drops.
- C. It is not necessary to remove contact lenses before administering medications.
- D. Administer the medications by touching the tip of the dropper to the sclera of the eye.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the medications 5 minutes apart. Timolol and pilocarpine are both used to treat glaucoma but work differently. Timolol is a beta-blocker that reduces intraocular pressure while pilocarpine constricts the pupil to improve drainage. Administering them 5 minutes apart prevents one medication from washing out the other. Choice B is incorrect as pressure on the conjunctival sac is not necessary. Choice C is incorrect as contact lenses should be removed before administering eye drops. Choice D is incorrect as touching the dropper tip to the eye can lead to infections.
A nurse is educating community members about how to prepare for a disaster. Which of the following items should be included in a disaster preparedness kit? (Select all that apply)
- A. Clean clothing.
- B. Personal identification.
- C. Three quarts of water per person.
- D. Matches.
- E. Prescription medications.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: The correct items to include in a disaster preparedness kit are A, B, D, and E. Clean clothing (A) is essential for hygiene and warmth. Personal identification (B) is crucial for identification and accessing services. Matches (D) are necessary for starting fires for warmth and cooking. Prescription medications (E) are vital for individuals with medical conditions. Choice C is incorrect as the recommended amount of water for disaster preparedness is one gallon per person per day, not three quarts. Choices F and G are not provided in the question and therefore cannot be assessed.
A nurse is admitting a client who has pertussis. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Airborne
- B. Contact
- C. Protective
- D. Droplet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Droplet precautions. Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and eye protection to prevent transmission through these droplets. Airborne precautions are for diseases spread through small particles, contact precautions are for direct physical contact, and protective precautions are not a standard type of transmission-based precaution. Droplet precautions are the most appropriate choice for pertussis to prevent the spread of the infection to others.