A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
- A. Nondominant dorsal venous arch
- B. Dominant distal dorsal vein
- C. Nondominant forearm basilic vein
- D. Dominant antecubital vein
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nondominant dorsal venous arch. This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the larger vein diameter, ease of access, and reduced risk of complications like nerve damage or infiltration. The nondominant side is chosen to prevent disruption of daily activities. The dorsal venous arch is a superficial vein that is easily visible and palpable, making it suitable for successful cannulation. It also allows for optimal flow rate and minimizes the risk of phlebitis. Choices B, C, and D are not ideal for various reasons such as smaller vein size, increased risk of nerve damage, and difficulty in accessing or securing the catheter.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is teaching a client who has angina a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Discard any tablets you do not use every 6 months.
- B. Take one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating.
- C. Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle.
- D. Place the tablet between your cheek and gum to dissolve.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle. Nitroglycerin tablets are sensitive to light, moisture, and heat. Storing them in their original glass bottle at room temperature helps maintain their potency. Discarding unused tablets every 6 months (choice A) is not necessary as long as they are stored properly. Taking a tablet each morning (choice B) is not recommended as nitroglycerin is usually taken as needed for angina attacks. Placing the tablet between cheek and gum (choice D) is not the correct administration route for sublingual nitroglycerin, as it should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium gluconate. In hypermagnesemia, there is an excess of magnesium in the blood, leading to muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for hypermagnesemia as it works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium. By administering calcium gluconate, the nurse can help reverse the symptoms associated with hypermagnesemia and restore normal calcium levels in the body. Protamine sulfate (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, acetylcysteine (Choice B) is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, and flumazenil (Choice D) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines. These medications are not indicated for hypermagnesemia.
A nurse Is evaluating the laboratory results of four clents. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds indicates that the client's blood is taking too long to clot, which puts the client at risk for bleeding. The aPTT range for a client on heparin therapy is 30-40 seconds, so a result of 90 seconds is significantly elevated and requires immediate attention to prevent bleeding complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range of 30-40 seconds, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
C: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
D: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 is also
A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
- A. Decreased nausea
- B. Increased pain relief
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased respiratory rate. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that works by blocking the effects of opioids, such as morphine. By administering naloxone to the client experiencing an adverse reaction to morphine, the nurse can reverse the respiratory depression caused by the morphine. This reversal leads to an increase in the client's respiratory rate, which is a therapeutic effect of naloxone in this situation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Decreased nausea - Naloxone does not directly address nausea.
B: Increased pain relief - Naloxone does not provide pain relief but reverses the effects of opioids.
C: Decreased blood pressure - Naloxone may lead to an increase in blood pressure due to its effects on reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression.
A nurse is caring for a client in a provider's office. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
- A. The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal
- B. You can experience vivid nightmares."
- C. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color
- D. Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication
- E. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements
- F. This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position
Correct Answer: A, B, E, F
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, B, E, F
Rationale:
A: Taking the medication with a meal can help reduce nausea, enhancing tolerance.
B: Mentioning vivid nightmares prepares the client for a potential side effect.
E: Increase in involuntary movements is a common side effect of certain medications.
F: Informing about potential dizziness upon standing up quickly promotes safety.
These statements address medication effects and side effects, promoting client understanding and safety.
Incorrect Choices:
C: Urine color change may not be relevant to the medication being discussed.
D: High protein meal interaction is not mentioned for this medication.
Incorrect choices lack relevance or do not address potential medication effects, making them not suitable for client education.