A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
- A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
- B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
- C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
- D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.
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The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?
- A. steak and potatoes
- B. prosciutto and cheese plate
- C. orange juice and toast
- D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client. What is the most appropriate pain scale for the nurse to use during the assessment?
- A. McGill Pain Scale
- B. FLACC Pain Scale
- C. CRIES Pain Scale
- D. Wong-Baker Pain Scale
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the Wong-Baker Pain Scale. This scale is specifically designed for pediatric clients, including children as young as 3 years old, making it the most appropriate choice for a 4-year-old. It utilizes a simple visual scale with facial expressions that children can easily understand and use to express their pain levels. The FLACC and CRIES Pain Scales are also used for pediatric clients but are more focused on non-verbal cues and specific populations like infants or critically ill children. The McGill Pain Scale, on the other hand, is more complex and uses descriptive words, making it more suitable for adult clients who can better articulate their pain experiences.
Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
- A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
- B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
- C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
- D. it is based on an educational approach.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.
A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?
- A. On the client's teeth
- B. On the client's forehead
- C. On the client's mastoid bone
- D. On the midline of the client's skull
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.
The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 Ml
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL.
Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.