A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- B. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
- D. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing dysphagia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer thickened liquids.
- B. Provide small bites of food.
- C. Encourage the client to eat quickly to avoid fatigue.
- D. Have the client lie supine after meals.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to administer thickened liquids. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration, which is a common risk for clients with swallowing difficulties. Providing small bites of food (choice B) can help, but the priority is to modify the liquid consistency. Encouraging the client to eat quickly (choice C) is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration and fatigue. Having the client lie supine after meals (choice D) can actually increase the risk of aspiration, especially in clients with dysphagia.
What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Administer antihistamines
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Mouth sores
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Increased saliva production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
- C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
- D. Mild headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.