Nokea
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
- B. I will take both medications at the same time.
- C. I will take the cromolyn before taking albuterol.
- D. I will take the medications in any order.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn." This is because albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps to open up the airways quickly, providing immediate relief during an asthma attack. Cromolyn, on the other hand, is a mast cell stabilizer that helps to prevent asthma attacks but does not provide immediate relief. Taking albuterol first allows for quick relief, followed by cromolyn for long-term prevention.
Choice B is incorrect as taking both medications at the same time may not allow for the full effectiveness of each drug. Choice C is incorrect as cromolyn should be taken before albuterol to allow time for it to take effect. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific order in which these medications should be taken for optimal results.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen.
- B. DIC is caused by increased fibrinogen levels.
- C. DIC is caused by a reduction in platelet production.
- D. DIC is caused by a decrease in clotting factors.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because DIC is characterized by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen. In septic shock, the body's response triggers widespread activation of the coagulation system, leading to the consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. This results in the formation of microclots throughout the body, leading to organ dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as DIC is not caused by increased fibrinogen levels, a reduction in platelet production, or a decrease in clotting factors. It is essential for the nurse to emphasize the role of abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen in DIC to help the client understand the pathology and potential complications associated with septic shock.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is taking aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hematocrit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). ESR is a common test used to monitor inflammation levels in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication, so monitoring ESR can help assess the effectiveness of the treatment. A decrease in ESR levels indicates a reduction in inflammation, suggesting that the aspirin is working. The other choices (A, C, D) are not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of aspirin in RA. C-reactive protein and white blood cell count are general markers of inflammation and infection, not specific to RA. Hematocrit measures red blood cell levels, which are not directly related to the effectiveness of aspirin in treating RA.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia as an adverse effect. This occurs because atenolol blocks the action of adrenaline on the heart, causing the heart to beat slower. Hyperglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of atenolol; in fact, it may even lower blood sugar levels slightly. Tachycardia (B) and hypertension (C) are the opposite effects of atenolol, as it is used to treat high blood pressure and reduce heart rate. Therefore, these would not be expected adverse effects.
A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after TURP. What indicates a complication?
- A. Clear urine output
- B. Burgundy-colored urine output
- C. Mild pain at the incision site
- D. Temperature of 98.6°F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burgundy-colored urine output. This indicates a complication post-TURP due to potential bleeding. Clear urine output (A) is normal. Mild pain at the incision site (C) is expected. Temperature of 98.6°F (D) is within normal range.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports a new onset of severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine if the client is experiencing a myocardial infarction?
- A. Perform a 12-lead ECG
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Place the client in a prone position
- D. Assess the client's blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a 12-lead ECG. This is because an ECG is the most reliable and direct way to assess for myocardial infarction by identifying characteristic changes in the heart's electrical activity. Nitroglycerin (B) is used to relieve chest pain but should not be administered before confirming the diagnosis. Placing the client in a prone position (C) is not appropriate for assessing chest pain. Assessing blood pressure (D) is important but not the initial priority when suspecting myocardial infarction.