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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should empty my bladder before the procedure.
- B. I will be lying on my side during the procedure.
- C. I will be asleep during the procedure.
- D. I should start fasting 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Emptying the bladder before amniocentesis helps prevent injury to the bladder during the procedure. This statement shows understanding of the importance of bladder emptying for safety and accuracy.
B: Incorrect. The client is typically lying on their back during amniocentesis.
C: Incorrect. The client is awake during the procedure.
D: Incorrect. Fasting is not required for amniocentesis.
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A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Massage the client's fundus.
- B. Administer oxytocin to the client.
- C. Empty the client’s bladder.
- D. Provide oxygen to the client via nonrebreather face mask.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to massage the client's fundus. This is because excessive vaginal bleeding postpartum can indicate uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By massaging the fundus, the nurse can help the uterus contract and prevent further bleeding. This intervention is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering oxytocin (choice B) can help with uterine contractions, but massaging the fundus should be done first. Emptying the client's bladder (choice C) is important to prevent uterine atony, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Providing oxygen (choice D) is not directly related to managing postpartum bleeding and should not be the first action.
A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a newborn about the Plastibell circumcision technique. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. The Plastibell will be removed 4 hours after the procedure.
- B. Make sure the newborn’s diaper is snug.
- C. Yellow exudate will form at the surgical site in 24 hours.
- D. Notify the provider if the end of your baby’s penis appears dark red.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the provider if the end of your baby’s penis appears dark red. This is important because it could indicate infection or other complications. Dark red color may suggest poor blood flow or infection, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.
Incorrect answers:
A: The Plastibell is not typically removed after 4 hours, as it usually falls off on its own within a week.
B: Snug diaper can cause discomfort and hinder proper healing.
C: Yellow exudate forming at the site in 24 hours is normal as part of the healing process.
Therefore, option D is the most critical information for the parents to be aware of.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Labor induction with oxytocin
- B. Newborn weight 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz)
- C. Vacuum-assisted delivery
- D. History of uterine atony
- E. History of human papillomavirus
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D.
A: Labor induction with oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
C: Vacuum-assisted delivery can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased risk of bleeding.
D: A history of uterine atony indicates a weakened ability of the uterus to contract post-delivery, increasing the risk of hemorrhage.
B: Newborn weight is not directly related to postpartum hemorrhage risk.
E: History of human papillomavirus does not directly impact postpartum hemorrhage risk.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Coombs test result
- B. Mucous membrane assessment
- C. Intake and output
- D. Respiratory rate
- E. Head assessment finding
- F. Heart rate
- G. Sclera color
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, C, and G. A Coombs test result should be reported as it indicates the presence of antibodies that can cause hemolytic anemia. Mucous membrane assessment is crucial for detecting hydration status and oxygenation. Intake and output monitoring helps assess kidney function and fluid balance. Sclera color can indicate liver function or jaundice. Choices D, E, and F are not necessarily critical findings to report urgently to the provider in most cases. Monitoring respiratory rate, heart rate, and head assessment findings are important but may not require immediate provider notification unless there are significant abnormalities.
A nurse is assessing a newborn following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of this birth method?
- A. Polycythemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
- D. Facial palsy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facial palsy. Forceps-assisted birth can put pressure on the baby's face, potentially leading to facial nerve injury and resulting in facial palsy. This occurs due to the compression of the facial nerve during delivery. Other choices are incorrect: A - Polycythemia is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. B - Hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with maternal diabetes or prematurity. C - Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a lung condition primarily seen in premature infants requiring mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy. In summary, facial palsy is the most likely complication following a forceps-assisted birth due to the pressure exerted on the baby's face during delivery.