A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I will give my child a dose as soon as wheezing starts.
- B. My child should rinse out his mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. My child should exhale completely before placing the inhaler in his mouth.
- D. If my child has difficulty breathing in the dose, a spacer can be used.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication and should not be used as a rescue inhaler when wheezing starts. This indicates a need for further teaching as the parent should understand that cromolyn sodium is not meant for immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps reduce the risk of oral thrush, a common side effect. Choice C is correct as exhaling completely before using the inhaler helps ensure proper inhalation of the medication. Choice D is correct as a spacer can be used if the child has difficulty coordinating breathing with the inhaler, improving medication delivery.
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A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem.
Incorrect Choices:
B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate.
C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration.
D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
- B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
- C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
- D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.
A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)
- A. PTT
- B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.
When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away.
- B. Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.
- C. I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon.
- D. Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.