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A nurse is reading a research study that states, 'There is a strong negative correlation between the independent and dependent variables (r = --0.85).' The nurse interprets the statement as which of the following?
- A. The dependent variable caused a change in the independent variable.
- B. The independent and dependent variables are significantly different.
- C. As values of the independent variable go up, values of the dependent variable go down.
- D. When the confidence interval is computed, the negative value will change to positive.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A negative correlation means that as one variable increases, the other decreases. The strength of the correlation is indicated by the absolute value of r.
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What assessments or tests would the nurse inform the pregnant patient they can expect to have at each prenatal visit?
- A. hemoglobin
- B. antibody screen
- C. ultrasound
- D. blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential during prenatal visits to detect any signs of preeclampsia or high blood pressure, which can be harmful to both the mother and baby. Regular blood pressure checks help ensure the health and well-being of the pregnant patient.
Rationale:
- A: Hemoglobin levels are typically checked to assess for anemia, but this may not be done at every prenatal visit unless there are specific concerns.
- B: Antibody screen is usually done early in pregnancy to check for antibodies that could affect the baby, but it may not be part of routine prenatal visits.
- C: Ultrasound is an important test during pregnancy, but it is not typically done at every prenatal visit unless there are specific concerns or for routine screening.
Summary:
Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial during prenatal visits to ensure the well-being of the pregnant patient. Hemoglobin, antibody screen, and ultrasound may not be done at every visit unless there are
The triage nurse in an obstetric clinic received the following four messages during the lunch hour. Which of the women should the nurse telephone first?
- A. My section incision from last week is leaking a whitish yellow discharge and I have a fever. What should I do?'
- B. I am 39 weeks pregnant with my first baby. I am having contractions about every ten minutes.'
- C. My boyfriend and I had intercourse this morning and our condom broke. What should we do?'
- D. I started my period yesterday. I need some medicine for these terrible menstrual cramps.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A fever and discharge from a surgical incision could indicate an infection, which requires immediate attention. The other situations, while important, are less urgent.
A nurse is following the PDSA cycle for quality improvement. Which action will the nurse take for the letter “A”?
- A. Act
- B. Alter
- C. Assess
- D. Approach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: There are many models for quality improvement and performance improvement. One model is the PDSA cycle: plan, do, study, and act.
The nurse is caring for a client, 37 weeks' gestation, who was just told that she is group B strep + (positive). The client states, 'How could that happen? I only have sex with my husband. Will my baby be OK?' Based on this information, which of the following should the nurse communicate to the client?
- A. The client's partner must have acquired the bacteria during a sexual encounter.
- B. The bacteria do not injure babies, but they could cause the client to have a bad sore throat.
- C. The client is high risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease from the bacteria.
- D. Antibiotics will be administered during labor to prevent vertical transmission of the bacteria.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Group B strep is a common bacteria that can be present in the vaginal or rectal area and is not sexually transmitted. Antibiotics during labor are given to prevent the baby from contracting the bacteria during delivery.
A client is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for preterm labor. Which of the following maternal findings would warrant stopping the infusion?
- A. Cardiac arrhythmias.
- B. Respiratory rate 24 rpm.
- C. Blood pressure 90/60.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cardiac arrhythmias are a serious side effect of terbutaline and would warrant stopping the infusion to prevent further complications.