A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
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The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:
- A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
- B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
- C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
- D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.
Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
- A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
- B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
- C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
- D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?
- A. Structure audit
- B. Benchmarking
- C. Risk benefit analysis
- D. Root cause analysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.
Who should document care?
- A. The LPNs should document the care that they provided and the care that was given by unlicensed assistive staff.
- B. The registered nurse must document all of the care that is provided by the nursing assistants because they are accountable for all care.
- C. All staff members should document all of the care that they have provided.
- D. All staff should document all of the care that they have provided but the registered nurse, as the only independent practitioner, signs it.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All staff members should document the care they provided as part of their accountability and to ensure accurate and comprehensive records. In healthcare settings, it is essential for all staff to document the care they deliver for continuity of care and legal purposes. The registered nurse may sign off on the documentation for oversight purposes, but the responsibility of documenting care extends to all staff involved in patient care. Choices A and B incorrectly limit the responsibility to specific roles, while choice D inaccurately suggests that only the registered nurse signs off on the documentation, overlooking the importance of comprehensive documentation by all staff members involved.
Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?
- A. Licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications.
- B. Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics.
- C. Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics.
- D. Adjuvant medications can be purchased over the counter.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because adjuvant medications are often available over the counter without a prescription. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications depending on their scope of practice. Choices B and C are incorrect because adjuvant medications are not classified as schedule 1 or schedule 2 narcotics.
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