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A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
- C. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
- D. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1C of 6.8%.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with a hip fracture and new onset of tachypnea may have a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Tachypnea can indicate hypoxia, which can be fatal if not addressed promptly. The nurse should prioritize assessing this client to ensure timely management and prevent further deterioration.
Clients A, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment compared to client B. Client A's weakness in the lower extremities, client C's sinus arrhythmia, and client D's HbA1C level do not pose immediate risks to their health. Therefore, the nurse should assess client B first to address the potential pulmonary embolism.
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A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- B. Assess the client's behavior once every hour.
- C. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- D. Discuss with the client his inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because documenting the client's behavior before seclusion is essential for comprehensive care, ensuring accurate assessment, and treatment planning. This documentation provides crucial information for evaluating the effectiveness of seclusion, understanding triggers, and creating a safer environment. Assessing the client's behavior, offering fluids, or discussing inappropriate behavior are important but secondary to documenting behavior for legal, ethical, and continuity of care reasons. Monitoring behavior continuously is more effective than hourly assessments.
A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hr.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 min.
- C. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rail.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Document the client's condition every 15 min. This guideline is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the client in restraints. Documenting the client's condition frequently allows for timely identification of any signs of distress, discomfort, or complications related to the use of restraints. This practice helps in monitoring the client's physical and psychological status, enabling prompt intervention if necessary.
Removing the client's restraint every 4 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it may compromise the client's safety and increase the risk of injury or harm. Requesting a PRN restraint prescription for aggressive clients (choice C) is inappropriate as restraints should only be used as a last resort and not for convenience. Attaching the restraint to the bed's side rail (choice D) is unsafe and restricts the client's movement unnecessarily.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Position the client on the affected side for 4 hr following the procedure.
- B. Instruct the client to avoid coughing during the procedure.
- C. Inform the client that he will be NPO for 6 hr prior to the procedure.
- D. Place the client in the prone position during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Instruct the client to avoid coughing during the procedure.
Rationale: Coughing during thoracentesis can increase the risk of complications such as lung puncture or bleeding. Instructing the client to avoid coughing helps maintain safety during the procedure by minimizing these risks.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Positioning the client on the affected side for 4 hours following the procedure is not necessary and may not be beneficial. It does not directly impact the safety or success of the thoracentesis.
C: NPO for 6 hours prior to the procedure is not typically required for a thoracentesis. This action is more common for procedures involving anesthesia or sedation.
D: Placing the client in the prone position during the procedure is not recommended for thoracentesis. The client is usually positioned upright or slightly leaning forward to facilitate the procedure.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the partner of a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. How to operate the portable suction machine.
- B. How to secure the tracheostomy tube with ties at the back of the neck.
- C. How to change the nondisposable tracheostomy tube daily.
- D. How to change the tracheostomy dressing using clean technique.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: How to change the tracheostomy dressing using clean technique. This is important to prevent infection and promote healing. First, wash hands thoroughly to maintain cleanliness. Second, gather necessary supplies such as clean gloves, sterile gauze, and saline solution. Third, remove the old dressing carefully and inspect the stoma for any signs of infection or irritation. Fourth, clean around the stoma with saline solution and gently pat dry. Finally, apply a new, sterile dressing using clean technique to maintain a clean and dry environment. Choice A is incorrect because operating a suction machine is typically done by healthcare professionals. Choice B is incorrect as securing the tracheostomy tube is usually done by healthcare providers to ensure proper placement. Choice C is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not a standard practice unless specifically indicated by a healthcare provider.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a prescription for IV therapy. The client tells the nurse that he has numerous allergies. Which of the following allergies should the nurse bring to the attention of the charge nurse prior to the initiation of the therapy?
- A. Latex
- B. Seafood
- C. Bee stings
- D. Peanuts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Latex)
Rationale: Latex allergies can lead to severe reactions, including anaphylaxis, if the client comes into contact with latex during IV therapy. It is crucial to inform the charge nurse to ensure alternative materials are used to prevent a life-threatening allergic reaction.
Summary of other choices:
B: Seafood - While seafood allergies are common, they are not directly related to IV therapy unless the IV solution contains seafood-derived components.
C: Bee stings - Bee sting allergies are important but are not directly relevant to IV therapy unless there is a risk of exposure during the procedure.
D: Peanuts - Peanut allergies are significant but do not pose a direct threat during IV therapy unless peanuts are present in the IV solution or equipment.