Nokea
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Hamburger on a wheat bun
- B. Baked chicken and potato chips
- C. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast
- D. Beef and barley soup with crackers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.
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The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect?
- A. It is also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome because it affects the mucous membranes (inside the mouth, throat, and nose), skin, and lymph nodes.
- B. In the second phase of the disease, findings include peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain.
- C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than age 5, and children of Hispanic descent.
- D. Initially findings are a sudden high fever, usually above 104 degrees Fahrenheit, which lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys and children younger than age 5, but there is no specific predisposition to children of Hispanic descent. Choice A is accurate, as Kawasaki disease does affect mucous membranes, skin, and lymph nodes. Choice B is correct, as peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain are findings in the second phase of the disease. Choice D is accurate since initially, there is a sudden high fever that lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
Which of these nursing diagnoses of 4 elderly clients would place 1 client at the greatest risk for falls?
- A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
- B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
- C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
- D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia. Nocturia increases the risk of falls in elderly clients due to frequent nighttime trips to the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect because while decreased vision can contribute to falls, nocturia poses a more direct risk. Choice B is incorrect as fatigue may affect mobility but is not as directly linked to falls as nocturia. Choice C is incorrect as impaired gas exchange is not typically associated with an increased risk of falls.
A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.