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A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?
- A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
- B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
- C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
- D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.
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If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?
- A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
- B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
- C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
- D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.
A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?
- A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
- B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
- C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
- D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.
Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?
- A. Genital herpes.
- B. Trichomoniasis.
- C. Syphilis.
- D. Chlamydia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.
A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
- A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
- B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
- C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
- D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest.
Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production.
Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.