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A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?
- A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
- B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
- C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
- D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.
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Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?
- A. meaning of current stressors
- B. possibility of self-harm
- C. motivation to participate in treatment
- D. presence of alcohol or other drug use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.
A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. metabolic acidosis
- B. respiratory acidosis
- C. metabolic alkalosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.
A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:
- A. is given after the D10W is finished.
- B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
- C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
- D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.
A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
- C. Change in LOC
- D. Vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.
A nurse is instructing a patient on the order of sensations with the application of an ice water bath for a swollen right ankle. Which of the following is the correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath?
- A. cold, burning, aching, and numbness
- B. burning, aching, cold, and numbness
- C. aching, cold, burning, and numbness
- D. cold, aching, burning, and numbness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath is cold, burning, aching, and numbness, as stated by the acronym CBAN (cold, burn, ache, numbness). Option A is the correct sequence. Choice B is incorrect as it starts with burning, which typically follows the cold sensation. Choice C is incorrect as aching is usually felt after the burning sensation. Choice D is incorrect as aching usually occurs after the burning sensation.