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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dL
- B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Hct 0.44%
- D. WBC count 5
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Total bilirubin levels should be reported because amitriptyline can cause hepatotoxicity. Elevated bilirubin could indicate liver damage. Option B, potassium level, is not typically affected by amitriptyline. Option C, hematocrit, and option D, WBC count, are not directly related to amitriptyline use. Options E, F, and G are not provided. In summary, the nurse should report elevated total bilirubin levels due to potential hepatotoxicity from amitriptyline.
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A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial
- B. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial
- C. Inject air into the NPH vial
- D. Inject air into the regular insulin vial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inject air into the NPH vial. This step is crucial to prevent creating a vacuum in the vial when withdrawing the NPH insulin, ensuring accurate dosage measurement. Injecting air into the NPH vial equalizes pressure, making it easier to withdraw the correct amount of insulin without causing air bubbles.
Choice A is incorrect as withdrawing regular insulin first may lead to air being drawn into the syringe when withdrawing NPH insulin. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing NPH insulin first without equalizing pressure may cause difficulty in drawing the correct amount of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air into the regular insulin vial before withdrawing NPH insulin is unnecessary and may introduce air bubbles into the syringe.
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, 'Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.' Which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
- A. Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.
- B. The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.
- C. Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.
- D. The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Potassium chloride infusion rate should not exceed 10 mEq/hr to prevent hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhythmias.
2. In this case, 30 mEq in 100 mL over 30 min exceeds the safe rate.
3. Clarification is needed to adjust the infusion rate to avoid potential harm.
4. Other choices are incorrect as dextrose dilution, different formulations, and IV bolus are not the primary concerns.
A nurse manager is planning an in-service about pain management with opioids for clients who have cancer. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include?
- A. IM administration is recommended if PO opioids are ineffective
- B. Respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops
- C. Meperidine is the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain
- D. Withhold PRN pain medication for the client who is receiving opioids every 6 hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops. Opioid tolerance occurs with prolonged use, leading to a decrease in the side effect of respiratory depression. This information is crucial for healthcare providers managing cancer pain with opioids. Choice A is incorrect because oral administration is preferred over intramuscular for better absorption and convenience. Choice C is incorrect as meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to its toxic metabolite. Choice D is incorrect as PRN pain medication should not be withheld for clients on scheduled opioid doses to ensure adequate pain control.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following routes of administration should the nurse use?
- A. Subcutaneous
- B. Intravenous
- C. Central venous access device
- D. Midline catheter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central venous access device. TPN is a highly concentrated solution that provides all the nutrients a person needs intravenously. A central venous access device allows for the infusion of TPN into a large central vein, such as the superior vena cava, ensuring immediate access to the bloodstream for rapid absorption. Using other routes like subcutaneous (A), intravenous (B), or midline catheter (D) may not be suitable due to the high osmolarity of TPN, which can cause irritation and damage to smaller veins. Therefore, a central venous access device is the most appropriate and safe route for administering TPN.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in shock and is receiving an infusion of albumin. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Oxygen saturation 96%
- B. PaCO2 30 mm Hg
- C. Increase in BP
- D. Decrease in protein
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increase in BP. Albumin is a colloid solution that helps increase blood volume and subsequently improves blood pressure in shock patients. Increasing blood volume leads to an increase in blood pressure. Option A is incorrect because oxygen saturation is not directly affected by albumin infusion. Option B is incorrect because a low PaCO2 level is not a direct effect of albumin infusion. Option D is incorrect because albumin is a protein and its infusion would not lead to a decrease in protein levels.