Nokea
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.