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A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
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A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
- D. This medication decreases my appetite.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
- B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
- C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
- D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?
- A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
- B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
- C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
- D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.