A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
- C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
- D. Mild headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
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A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.
A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
- B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
- C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
- D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.
What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke?
- A. Administer thrombolytics
- B. Perform a neurological assessment
- C. Perform a CT scan
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke. This assessment helps determine the severity of the stroke, identify potential deficits, and guide further interventions. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) should only be done after a CT scan to confirm the type of stroke and rule out hemorrhagic stroke. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is important but is typically done after stabilizing the patient. Administering oxygen (Choice D) is essential to maintain adequate oxygenation, but performing a neurological assessment takes precedence in the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Administer antihistamines
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.