A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with major depressive disorder who is taking fluoxetine. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min
- B. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
- C. Weight gain of 2.2 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A weight gain of 2.2 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate fluid retention, a serious side effect of fluoxetine that should be reported to the provider. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not alarming findings that would require immediate reporting to the provider. A heart rate of 80/min, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are all within normal limits and not typically concerning in a client taking fluoxetine.
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A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Sodium phosphate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
- A. Administer a cleansing enema.
- B. Initiate a low-fiber diet.
- C. Apply moist heat to the abdomen.
- D. Provide a clear liquid diet.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
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