Nokea
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for tetracycline. The nurse should instruct the client to take which of the following medications 3 hr before or after taking the tetracycline?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Antacid
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Lovastatin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antacid. Tetracycline can bind to certain substances, like calcium in antacids, reducing its absorption. By taking the antacid 3 hours before or after tetracycline, the client can ensure optimal absorption of the antibiotic. Choice A, hydrochlorothiazide, does not interact significantly with tetracycline. Choices C and D also do not have significant interactions with tetracycline.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer through the NG tube?
- A. Dipivefrin
- B. Salmeterol
- C. Lovastatin
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lovastatin. Lovastatin is a medication that can be administered through an NG tube as it is available in a liquid form suitable for tube administration. Dipivefrin (A) and Salmeterol (B) are not suitable for NG tube administration as they are ophthalmic and inhalation medications, respectively. Nitroglycerin (D) is typically given sublingually or transdermally for rapid effect, not via NG tube.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is experiencing oxycodone toxicity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Sedation
- C. Dilated pupils
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation. Oxycodone is an opioid that depresses the central nervous system, leading to sedation as a common manifestation of toxicity. Tachypnea (A) is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than toxicity. Dilated pupils (C) are more indicative of stimulant toxicity, not opioids. Tachycardia (D) is unlikely with oxycodone toxicity due to its depressant effects on the cardiovascular system. Other choices are not relevant to oxycodone toxicity.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client who has gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inject the medication at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus.
- B. Administer the medication with a 27-gauge /0.5 inch needle.
- C. Use the Z-track technique to administer the medication.
- D. Give the medication without aspirating prior to injection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the Z-track technique to administer the medication. The Z-track technique involves pulling the skin laterally before injecting the medication to prevent leakage and irritation. This is crucial when administering IM injections to prevent the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A is incorrect because the injection site for IM injections should be at least 2.5 cm (1 inch) away from the umbilicus. Option B is incorrect because a larger needle gauge (e.g., 22-25 gauge) is typically used for IM injections to reduce discomfort and prevent medication leakage. Option D is incorrect because aspirating prior to injection is not necessary for IM injections and may cause tissue damage.
A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who continues to have a migraine headache after taking sumatriptan orally 2 hr ago. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Tingling sensation
- B. Hypertension
- C. Flushing
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. The priority for the nurse to report is hypertension because sumatriptan can potentially cause an increase in blood pressure as a side effect. Hypertension is a serious condition that can lead to complications if not managed promptly.
A: Tingling sensation is a common side effect of sumatriptan and may not be immediately concerning.
C: Flushing is also a common side effect of sumatriptan and is usually not a priority.
D: Dizziness is a less severe side effect compared to hypertension and can often be managed with rest.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has diabetes mellitus and takes insulin glargine and insulin aspart. Which of the following actions indicates that the client understands the instructions?
- A. The client administers insulin glargine at the same time every day.
- B. The client mixes insulin aspart and insulin glargine in the same syringe.
- C. The client administers insulin aspart 30 min before breakfast.
- D. The client stores open vials of insulin glargine at room temperature for 60 days.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering insulin glargine at the same time every day helps maintain consistent blood sugar levels due to its long-acting nature. Mixing insulin aspart and glargine is incorrect as they have different onset and duration of action. Administering insulin aspart 30 min before breakfast may not align with the client's meal timing. Storing open vials of insulin glargine at room temperature for 60 days exceeds the recommended storage duration, risking potency and efficacy.