Nokea
A nurse is teaching a client about taking ferrous sulfate to treat iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select All)
- A. Eat iron-enriched foods.
- B. Spread the dosage across each day.
- C. Take the drug on an empty stomach.
- D. Report dark green or black stools.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat iron-enriched foods. Iron-enriched foods help increase iron levels in the body, supporting the treatment of iron deficiency anemia. The rationale is that consuming foods rich in iron can complement the effects of ferrous sulfate, aiding in the replenishment of iron stores.
Summary:
- B: Spreading the dosage throughout the day can help with better absorption, but it is not the priority instruction.
- C: Taking the drug on an empty stomach can enhance absorption, but it may also cause stomach upset.
- D: Reporting dark green or black stools is important to monitor for possible gastrointestinal bleeding, but it is not an instruction for taking ferrous sulfate.
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During haemostasis, prostacyclin
- A. Cleaves prothrombin into thrombin
- B. Causes vasodilation
- C. Stimulates platelet aggregation
- D. Activates fibrinolysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prostacyclin is a vasodilator that inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes fibrinolysis. Vasodilation helps reduce blood pressure, improve blood flow, and prevent clot formation. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choice A is incorrect as prostacyclin does not cleave prothrombin. Choice C is incorrect as prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation. Choice D is incorrect as prostacyclin does not activate fibrinolysis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute ischemic cerebrovascular event due to a thrombus in a cerebral vessel. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Alteplase
- B. Aspirin
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Heparin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alteplase. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow in acute ischemic stroke. It is crucial to administer within a specific time frame for the best outcome. Aspirin (B) and Clopidogrel (C) are antiplatelet agents that prevent further clot formation but are not used for immediate clot dissolution in acute ischemic stroke. Heparin (D) is an anticoagulant that prevents clot formation and is not typically used as the initial treatment for acute ischemic stroke.
Half life of plat. Is:
- A. 1-2days
- B. 3-4days
- C. 5-6days
- D. 7-8days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3-4 days. The half-life of a substance is the time it takes for half of the original amount to decay. In this case, since the half-life of platinum is 3-4 days, it means that after 3-4 days, half of the initial amount of platinum will have decayed. This answer is correct because it accurately represents the time frame for platinum decay. The other choices are incorrect because they do not correspond to the known half-life of platinum. Choice A (1-2 days), C (5-6 days), and D (7-8 days) are outside the typical half-life range for platinum, making them incorrect options.
A laboratory finding of granulocytosis
- A. Complete absence of peripheral blood granulocytes and their precursors in the bone marrow
- B. Acute bacterial infections
- C. Myeloproliferative disorders
- D. Increased numbers of granulocytes in blood and bone marrow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because granulocytosis refers to an increased number of granulocytes in both blood and bone marrow. This finding is commonly associated with conditions such as infections, inflammation, and certain hematologic disorders. Other choices are incorrect because A describes a condition of granulocytopenia, B is associated with acute bacterial infections but not specific to granulocytosis, and C refers to myeloproliferative disorders which may involve other cell types besides granulocytes.
The nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient during a physical assessment. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
- B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
- C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
- D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node. This finding is concerning because supraclavicular nodes are not normally palpable. Enlarged supraclavicular nodes can indicate metastatic cancer. B is incorrect because mobile and nontender axillary nodes are usually benign. C is incorrect as the inability to palpate superficial nodes may be normal. D is incorrect as firm inguinal nodes could indicate a localized infection or inflammation.